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The problem:

Find all real values of $x$ for which the series $$\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n(\log n)^2}$$ converges absolutely.

My attempt: My answer is $|x| <1$ because when $n \to \infty$, $x^ n$ tends to $0$ if $-1<x<1$

Is it correct?

Any hints/solution will be appreciated. Thank you.

Mason
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jasmine
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    I guess the series is also absolutely convergent when $x=1$ or $x=-1$ because $\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n(\log n)^2}$ is convergent. – John_Wick Nov 28 '18 at 23:09

1 Answers1

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Yes that's correct indeed by root test we obtain

$$|x|\left(\frac{1}{n(\log n)^2}\right)^\frac1n\to |x|<1$$

and it converges also for $x=\pm 1$, can you see why?

user
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