This can be solved in a CAS, but to make it interesting, let's do most of the work ourselves. By properties of the gamma function
$$ \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\Gamma(n+3/2)}{n!^2}r^n
= \sum_{n=0}^\infty (n+1/2)\frac{\Gamma(n+1/2)}{\Gamma(1/2)} \frac{r^n}{n!^2} =\big(r\,\frac{d}{dr}+\frac{1}{2}\big)
\underbrace{ \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{r^n}{n!}\,2^{-2n}\binom{2n}{n}}_{:=S(r)}$$
It is assumed the OP can do the derivatives and algebra. My part of the derivation is through when I can show
$$ (*) \quad S(r) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{r^n}{n!}\,2^{-2n}\binom{2n}{n} = e^{r/2}\,I_0(r/2)$$ where $I_0$ is the modified Bessel function. This can probably be shown by a (Cauchy) power series product, but I chose to reduce it to the well-known integral relationship
$$ I_0(x)=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^\pi \exp{\big(-x\,\cos(t)\big)} dt$$
Use another well-known relationship (I believe derivable from a trig substitution into the beta integral) for the central binomials.
$$ \frac{2}{\pi} \int_0^{\pi/2}\! \sin^{2n}(t) \,dt = 2^{-2n}\binom{2n}{n}$$
Insert this into the definition for $S(r)$ and interchange $\sum$ and $\int.$ The sum is simply the exponential and the expression so obtained is
$$S(r)=\frac{2}{\pi} \int_0^{\pi/2} \exp{\big( r\,\sin^2(t)\,\big)} dt=
\frac{2}{\pi} \int_0^{\pi/2} \exp{\big(\frac{r}{2}\,(1-\cos(2t))\,\big)} dt
$$
by a trigonometric identity. Finally, by rescaling the integral
$$S(r)=e^{r/2} \, \frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^{\pi}\exp{\big(\!-\frac{r}{2}\,\cos(t)\big)} dt$$ which completes the proof of (*).