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Andre Nicolas provides a nice solution to this problem in the link below but I am confused by one step:

How many times to roll a die before getting two consecutive sixes?

I have pasted his solution below.

I am confused by the equation for b:

I get that b should be 1 if we roll a second six straight after the first but this only happens with probability $\frac{1}{6}?$ Therefore it would seem to me that the equation for b should be:

$$b=1*\frac{1}{6}+\frac{5}{6}a.$$

Instead of finding the probability distribution, and then the expectation, we can work directly with expectations. That is often a useful strategy.

Let $a$ be the expected additional waiting time if we have not just tossed a $6$. At the beginning, we certainly have not just tossed a $6$, so $a$ is the required expectation. Let $b$ be the expected additional waiting time if we have just tossed a $6$.

If we have not just tossed a $6$, then with probability $\frac{5}{6}$ we toss a non-$6$ (cost: $1$ toss) and our expected additional waiting time is still $a$. With probability $\frac{1}{6}$ we toss a $6$ (cost: $1$ toss) and our expected additional waiting time is $b$. Thus $$a=1+\frac{5}{6}a+\frac{1}{6}b.$$ If we have just tossed a $6$, then with probability $\frac{5}{6}$ we toss a non-$6$, and then our expected additional waiting time is $a$. (With probability $\frac{1}{6}$ the game is over.) Thus $$b=1+\frac{5}{6}a.$$ We have two linear equations in two unknowns. Solve for $a$. We get $a=42$.

MRobinson
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Bazman
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    Whether you get a $6$ or not, you need an additional toss at least. In other words, you may also express $b$ as $\displaystyle b = \frac {1} {6} \times 1 + \frac {5} {6} (1 + a)$ – BGM Sep 19 '18 at 09:27

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