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Could someone verify this proof?

Given the following definition of divisibility $(\forall{a,b \in \mathbb{N}})[a \mid b \equiv (\exists{c \in \mathbb{N}})(ac=b)]$.

Statement: $(\forall{a,b,c \in \mathbb{N}})[(a\mid b) \rightarrow (ac\mid bc)] $ .

Proof:

Let $a,b \in \mathbb{N}$ be arbitrary. Assuming that $a\mid b$, we can conclude that $\exists{d \in \mathbb{N}}$ such that $ad = b$. By Algebra we can deduce the following sequence of statements. If $(ad)=b$, then $(ad)c=bc$. Therefore $(ac)d=bc$. Hence by the definition of divisibility we know that $ac\mid bc$.

Bill Dubuque
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    it looks correct to me. the only comment is that you could be more precise when you say 'by algebra we can deduce...' – WWright Aug 20 '10 at 15:09
  • This is more verbose than one would normally see. Why are you unsure whether it's a valid proof or not? –  Aug 20 '10 at 15:12
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    @maud The reason I posted it, is that unless you have a computer to check the proof, you need to have other people look at it for mistakes. You can check it yourself, but there is always a chance of a mistake. I made it particularly verbose so for the sake of clarity. – Tony Johnson Aug 20 '10 at 15:17
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    Also, it's more of a philosophical question than a math question. It's a very simple proof, but by the responses I get, you see how people actually define what makes a valid proof and an invalid one. – Tony Johnson Aug 20 '10 at 15:20
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    Where you write "By Algebra, ...", I would write "Multiplying both sides by $c$, we find that $(ad)c = bc$. Therefore ...", continuing exactly as you do. I would do this for the same reason that WWright suggested being more precise: the precise reason that $(ad)c = bc$ is because we are multiplying both sides of an equality by the same number. This is more specific than just saying "By Algebra", and so more helpful to the reader. (In general, when trying to explain how the steps in an argument follow one from the other, it is good to be as specific as possible, to make them easy to follow.) – Matt E Aug 20 '10 at 15:54
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    It's not clear to me why you have said "it's more of a philosophical question than a math question" and then accepted the 'the proof is valid' answer. –  Aug 21 '10 at 04:45