Prove that $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k}{\text{e}^{2\pi k}-1}=\frac{1}{24}-\frac{1}{8\pi}$$
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1$\large\frac{2\pi k}{\text{e}^{2\pi k}-1}=k\pi (\coth(k\pi)-1)$ – Mikasa Jan 08 '13 at 17:09
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I can transform the sum to $\sum_{m=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{m+1} \mathrm{csch}^2{(\pi m)}$. Unfortunately, I have to get back to work. I will come back if nobody has solved by then. – Ron Gordon Jan 08 '13 at 17:20
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1@Chris'ssister Have you tried using the Laplace transform as a tool to find the limit of this series using this paper? See http://mathdl.maa.org/images/cms_upload/A_Laplace_Transform18380.pdf. – Elias Costa Jan 08 '13 at 18:25
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@Elias: Thank you for that link I find it interesting. I'm going through it right now. – user 1591719 Jan 08 '13 at 18:29
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1Interestingly, if one blindly applies the Plana summation formula$$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty f(k) = -\frac{1}{2} f(0) + \int_0^\infty f(t) \mathrm{d}t + \int_0^\infty i \frac{f(i t)-f(-i t)}{\exp(2 \pi t)-1} \mathrm{d}t$$ although it is not applicable because $f(t)$ is not bounded in the right half complex plane, one gets $\frac{1}{12} - \frac{1}{4 \pi}$ which twice the exact answer. This hints that the sum may be amendable to complex analysis techniques. Here $f(k)$ refers to the summand. – user40314 Feb 09 '13 at 13:49
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@user40314: interesting point (+1). I also like to apply formulas where the requirements are not met, and surprisingly sometimes I get interesting results as yours. – user 1591719 Feb 09 '13 at 14:20
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See: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/392706/evaluating-sum-n-1-infty-fracne2-pi-n-1-using-the-inverse-melli – Argon Jul 04 '13 at 20:00
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@Argon once again, complex analisys is proving to be a very powerful tool. – user 1591719 Jul 04 '13 at 20:09
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@user40314 When $\large\Re\left(t\right) \gg 1$ we'll have $\large\left\vert{\rm f}\left(t\right)\right\vert \sim 2\pi \left\vert t\right\vert\exp\left(-2\pi\Re\left(t\right)\right)$. So, I didn't understand your point. – Felix Marin May 03 '14 at 21:58
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@user40314 I checked your Abel-Plana is half-etc as you said. By checking the Wikipedia entry the function will not satisfy the condition "$\large\ C/\left\vert z\right\vert^{1 + \epsilon}\ $" they impose on $\large{\rm f}\left(t\right)$. – Felix Marin May 03 '14 at 22:51
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2It is amusing since, "essentially", the sum is the energy of a photon gas with discrete wave numbers. I guess @Fabian answer exploits this fact. – Felix Marin May 03 '14 at 23:02
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i found a proof of the stated $1/\sinh(πn)^2$ sum using only basic contour integration. in case someone is interested i can post it. – tired May 16 '17 at 19:16
3 Answers
Rewrite $$\frac{1}{e^{2\pi k} -1} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty e^{-2\pi k n}.$$
So we need to evaluate $$\sum_{n,k=1}^\infty k e^{-2\pi k n}.$$
Summing first over $k$, we have $$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty k e^{-2\pi k n} = \frac1{2\pi}\frac{\partial}{\partial n} \sum_{k=1}^\infty e^{-2\pi k n} = \frac1{2\pi}\frac{\partial}{\partial n} \frac{1}{e^{2\pi n} -1} =\frac{e^{2\pi n}}{(e^{2\pi n}-1)^2} = \frac{1}{4 \sinh^2(\pi n)} .$$
The sum $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\sinh^2(\pi n)} =\frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{2\pi} $$ is evaluated here, see also page 3 here, and the quoted result follows.

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Better yet, here's a link to the paper in which the result is derived. http://www.math.uiuc.edu/~berndt/articles/venkalatex.pdf – Ron Gordon Jan 08 '13 at 18:40
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1@nbubis: thanks, I was trying to evaluate $\sum_n \text{csch}^2 (\pi n)$ from first principles but it seems not so easy. The second reference needs two pages to prove it (ok, he has a more general result). – Fabian Jan 08 '13 at 18:40
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@fabian: apologies, didn't see that. Very nontrivial exercise indeed. – Ron Gordon Jan 08 '13 at 18:41
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Interesting -- I did the same manipulation with the sums and the derivative, then found that Wolfram|Alpha has more difficulty with the transformed sum than with the original one, and wrongly concluded that the transformation had led me away from a solution :-) – joriki Jan 08 '13 at 19:08
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@joriki: you should have tried the equivalent sum which it has obviously tabulated :-) – Fabian Jan 08 '13 at 19:10
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I wonder if there is a faster/simpler way to prove that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\sinh^2(\pi n)} =\frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{2\pi}$. – user 1591719 Jan 08 '13 at 19:13
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7@Chris'ssister: I wondered a long time myself (tried it very hard). However, the statement
which was evidently first proved by T. S. Nanjundiah [11] in 1951
in the paper made me decide that there is none. – Fabian Jan 08 '13 at 19:15 -
+1. Fine answer. It looks like a photon gas with discrete wave numbers. – Felix Marin May 03 '14 at 23:06
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i found a proof of the stated $1/\sinh(\pi n)^2$ sum using only basic contour integration. in case someone is interested i can post it. – tired May 16 '17 at 19:11
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@tired: I am interested, you could add it as an additional (complementary) answer to this question. – Fabian May 17 '17 at 06:24
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@Fabian i think my approach is straighforwardly expandable to proof the general result stated in the paper by Berndt et al. linked above, so i will try to this in the (european) evening and then post what i get – tired May 17 '17 at 06:46
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Consider the function complex valued function
$$f(z)=\frac{\cot(\pi z)}{\sinh^2(z \pi)}$$
and integrate it along a quadratic contour $\mathcal{C}$ with verticies $\{( N/2,i N/2),(- N/2,i N/2),(- N/2,-i N/2),( N/2,-i N/2)\}$ where $N$ is a (big) odd natural number. Note that the choice of such of kind verticies is necessary to bypass the poles of $f(z)$.
The result is (we travel counter-clockwise)
$$ \oint_{\mathcal{C}}f(z)dz=\int_{N/2}^{-N/2}dxf(x+i N/2)+i\int_{N/2}^{-N/2}dyf(i y+ N/2)+\\\int_{-N/2}^{N/2}dxf(x-i N/2)+i\int_{-N/2}^{N/2}dyf(i y+ N/2) $$
we now have (this is an exercise for the reader)
$\lim_{N\rightarrow\infty}f(x\pm i N/2)=\frac{\mp i}{\cosh^2(\pi x)}$ and that $\lim_{N\rightarrow\infty}f(i y\pm N/2)=0$.
Furthermore it is elementary to show (the integrand is the derivative of $\tanh$) that $\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{1}{\cosh^2(\pi x)}dx=\frac{2}{\pi}$ which means that
$$ \oint_{\mathcal{C}}f(z)dz=-2\frac{2i}{\pi}+2\cdot0=-\frac{4i}{\pi} \quad (\spadesuit) $$
in the limit $N\rightarrow \infty$. On the other hand we know by the residue theorem that (note that $(N-1)/2$ is an integer by construction)
$$ \oint_{\mathcal{C}}f(z)dz=2 \pi i\sum_{-(N-1)/2\leq k\leq (N-1)/2}\text{Res}(f(z),z=k)+\text{Res}(f(z),z=i k) $$
it is now straightforward to show that
$$ \text{Res}(f(z),z=k)=\text{Res}(f(z),z=i k) = \frac{1}{\pi\sinh^2(\pi k)} \quad \text{if}\,\,k\neq0 $$
$$ \text{Res}(f(z),z=0) =-\frac{2}{3 \pi} $$
which allows us to write that
$$ \oint_{\mathcal{C}} f(z)dz = 8 i\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sinh^2(\pi k)}-\frac{4 i}{3} \quad (\heartsuit) $$
In the limit of $N\rightarrow\infty$.
Now putting togehter $(\heartsuit)$ and $(\spadesuit)$ it follows that
$$ \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sinh^2(\pi k)}=\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{2\pi} \quad\blacksquare $$
this proves the result used by @Fabian
Appendix
if we set $f_a(z)=\frac{\cot(\pi z)}{\sinh^2(a z \pi)}$ and follow the same steps as above we can show that on the one hand the sum of residues equals
$$ \oint_{\mathcal{C}} f_a(z)dz=4i\sum_{k\geq1}\frac{1}{\sinh^2(k \pi a)}+\frac{4i}{a^2}\sum_{k\geq1}\frac{1}{\sinh^2(k \pi/ a)}-\frac {2 i}{3}\frac{1+a^2}{a^2}\quad (\heartsuit \heartsuit) $$
and on the other hand, by parametrizing the contour of integration as shown above, we get that $$ \oint_{\mathcal{C}} f_a(z)dz=-\frac{4i}{\pi a} \quad (\spadesuit \spadesuit) $$
Now putting togehter $(\heartsuit\heartsuit)$ and $(\spadesuit\spadesuit)$ it follows that
$$ \sum_{k\geq1}\frac{1}{\sinh^2(k \pi a)}+\frac{1}{a^2}\sum_{k\geq1}\frac{1}{\sinh^2(k \pi/ a)}=\frac{1+a^2}{6 a^2}-\frac{1}{\pi a}\quad\blacksquare\quad\blacksquare $$
in accordance with Berndt et al.

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1It is interesting to prove that some parts of the contour don't vanish. – Zaid Alyafeai May 22 '17 at 13:03
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If we define Dedekind eta function $\eta(q)$ via the equation $$\eta(q) = q^{1/12}\prod_{i = 1}^{\infty}(1 - q^{2i})\tag{1}$$ then it can be proved via functional equation of Dedekind eta function that $$n^{1/4}\eta(e^{-\pi\sqrt{n}}) = \eta(e^{-\pi/\sqrt{n}})\tag{2}$$ Let's define function $P(q)$ as $$P(q) = 1 - 24\sum_{i = 1}^{\infty}\frac{iq^{2i}}{1 - q^{2i}} = 12q\frac{d}{dq}\log\eta(q)\tag{3}$$ Logarithmic differentiation of equation $(2)$ with respect to $n$ gives us $$nP(e^{-\pi\sqrt{n}}) + P(e^{-\pi/\sqrt{n}}) = \frac{6\sqrt{n}}{\pi}\tag{4}$$ and putting $n = 1$ we get $$P(e^{-\pi}) = \frac{3}{\pi}\tag{5}$$ and looking at the definition of $P(q)$ we see that the above equation is exactly what is asked in the question.

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2@tired: Ramanujan dealt with such sums of hyperbolic functions in great detail and I learnt most of his technique from his collected papers. The beauty of his approach is the use of elementary tools (algebra and calculus of single real variable) and it shows that these basic tools (available to any high schooler) can prove very deep results. – Paramanand Singh May 17 '17 at 22:02
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1it is somehow logical that Ramanujan chosed this appproach because his lack of a formal mathematical education (as Euler did in a time where formal mathematics wasn't developed). And it is absolutely incredible how far he came... – tired May 17 '17 at 22:12
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@tired : fully agree. By the way in case you have not noticed the last equation in your answer dealing with variable $a$ is same as the equation $(4)$ of my answer (just put $a=\sqrt{n} $). – Paramanand Singh May 18 '17 at 03:28
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yes indeed. calculating this sum is equivalent to show the functional equation for the $\eta$-function. Btw. do you know how to calculate the sum for higher powers of $\sinh(\pi x)$. Residue theory doesn't seem enough to do this :/ – tired May 18 '17 at 17:39
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1@tired: there are identities to handle the powers of hyperbolic functions also. I will extract some info and post after sometime. – Paramanand Singh May 18 '17 at 17:54
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@tired: sorry there do not appear identities like that. I was thinking more of identities related to sums like $\sum k^{a} /\sinh k\pi$ for integers $a$ – Paramanand Singh May 18 '17 at 18:03
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i found a paper which evaluates such sums as special cases of more general formulas, but it is insane: https://arxiv.org/abs/1409.0198 – tired May 18 '17 at 18:06
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@ParamanandSingh How does one prove the functional equation $(2)$? – Franklin Pezzuti Dyer Jan 13 '18 at 16:27
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@Nilknarf : this is a consequence of the transformation formula for Jacobi theta functions. – Paramanand Singh Jan 14 '18 at 00:06