On looking for the proof that $\|\cdot\|_1,\|\cdot\|_2,\|\cdot\|_\infty$ are equivalent on $\mathbb R^n$, I found the following question on MSE: 1 and 2 norm inequality.
In the accepted answer it is stated that $\|x \|_{\infty} \leq \|x \|_{2} \leq \|x \|_{1} \leq n \|x \|_{\infty}\ $ for $x\in\mathbb R^n$, and then proceeds to show so. At first I wasn't convinced that this statement showed that $\|\cdot\|_1$ and $\|\cdot\|_2$ were equivalent, but instead that they are both equivalent to $\|\cdot\|_\infty.$ In particular, there isn't provided some numbers $a,b\gt0:a\|x\|_1\le\|x\|_2\le b\|x\|_1$ holds.
Is the reasoning that since both $\|\cdot\|_1$ and $\|\cdot\|_2$ are equivalent to $\|\cdot\|_\infty$ they must be equivalent to each other? More formally, is it correct to justify this reasoning by saying that the equivalence of norms is a equivalence relation, wherein we make use of transitivity?