If $(a, b)=1$, prove that$$\gcd\left(\frac{a^n-b^n}{a-b}, a-b\right) = \gcd(n, a-b).$$
So since $a$ and $b$ are relatively prime that means $\gcd(a,b)=1$. Now, my question is, what theorems would I use to prove this statement? I was thinking something along the lines of using Euclidean algorithm but I wasn't quite sure how I would use it to prove this.