Does the following series have a closed-form expression:
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^k}{(k!)^2}$$
I know that it must converge because:
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^k}{k!} = e^z$$
and the $(k!)^2$ denominator obviously increases more quickly than the $k!$ denominator.
This problem came up in computing the probability of a draw in a football match with each team's goal scoring modeled as a Poisson process.
Thanks,
John