The derivative of a function $f$ is defined as $$\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$ Let $$d_1(f,h)=\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$ and, in fact, let all $d_n$ be defined by $$\lim_{h\to 0} d_n(f,h)=f^{(n)}(x)$$ In order to obtain $d_2$, we can plug $d_1$ into itself to get $$\frac{\frac{f(x+2h)-f(x+h)}{h}-\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}}{h}$$ $$\frac{f(x+2h)-f(x+h)-f(x+h)-f(x)}{h^2}$$ $$\frac{f(x+2h)-2f(x+h)-f(x)}{h^2}$$ and, in general, we can use induction to prove that, for natural $n$, $$d_n(f,h)=\frac{1}{h^n}\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k \binom{n}{k}f(x+(n-k)h)$$ However, I am interested in finding $d_\frac{1}{2}$. It should satisfy $$d_\frac{1}{2}(d_\frac{1}{2}(f,h),h)=d_1(f,h)=\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$ So that when it is composed with itself as shown, $d_1$ is the result.
It can possibly be obtained by figuring out how to extend the expression $$\frac{1}{h^n}\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k \binom{n}{k}f(x+(n-k)h)$$ to non-integer $n$. Does anybody have any ideas about how to do this?