I was doing an exercise about the integral $$ I_{n} = \int_{0}^{1} (1-x^{2})^{n}\, \mathrm{d}x $$ and I tried two approaches. On the one hand, by substituting $x = \sin u $ I found that $$ I_{n} = \frac{2}{3} × \frac{4}{5} × \cdots × \frac{2n}{2n+1} = \left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)\left(1-\frac{1}{5}\right)\cdots\left(1-\frac{1}{2n+1}\right).$$
On the other hand, the binomial expansion formula gave me $$I_{n} = \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\frac{(-1)^{k}}{2k+1}.$$
So I find that $$ \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\frac{(-1)^{k}}{2k+1} = \left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)\left(1-\frac{1}{5}\right)\cdots\left(1-\frac{1}{2n+1}\right),$$ but I want to understand this identity without integration. Is there a direct way to prove this? Perhaps by induction or generating polynomials or something.
I tried induction, and found that proving the identity is equivalent to proving $$ \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k}(-1)^{k} \left( \frac{1}{2n+3} - \frac{1}{2k+3} \right) = 0 $$ but here I get stuck.