Why is the number $e$ in Euler identity formula:
$$e^{iπ} = -1$$
I don't get it, why we use as base $e$.
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Here is an old answer I gave to a similar question https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1233283/why-did-euler-use-e-to-represent-complex-numbers/1233325#1233325 – Joel Mar 28 '17 at 14:45
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1See this video: it will give you a detailed explanation. – Crostul Mar 28 '17 at 14:46
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2because if it would be the number $\tau$ then Euler would be called Tuler. – Surb Mar 28 '17 at 14:47
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This is also relevant: How does $e^{\pi i}$ equal $-1$. – user1551 Mar 28 '17 at 14:49
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Are you aware of complex analysis? – ThisIsNotAnId Mar 28 '17 at 14:52
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I am just beginning with complex analysis, but I saw this formula and I got interested. – Grizabela Mar 28 '17 at 14:56