(I should say at the outset that this question is broad, and may need splitting up. Although I ask several questions, I present them as one because they are not independent of one another, and I am seeking a unified answer.)
My questions are:
How can we establish that the circumference $C$ and area $A$ of a circle of radius $r$ satisfy $C = 2\pi r$ and $A = \pi r^2$ for some constant, $\pi$?
How can we prove that $\pi$ is an element of the real field (e.g., a Dedekind cut)?
How can we prove (perhaps trivial, if the above are satisfied) that there are real functions $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$, which have the usual analytic properties, and also satisfy the usual geometric intuition?
It seems like most calculus textbooks sort of weasel out on these questions. Usually, they ignore the first two questions pretty much completely, and their derivation on the third point is a filling-out of the following outline:
- (1) Define $\sin(x)$ as height of triangle of central angle $x$ inscribed in the unit circle, where $x$ is in radians, and $\cos(x)$ as the length of its base. Assume the usual values for these functions at $k(\frac{\pi}{2}), k \in \mathbb{N}$.
- (2) Notice, by assuming (a) that $A = \pi r^2$ and $C = 2\pi r$, and (b) that the area of a sector is proportionate to the length of arc subtended by the angle on the circumference, that the area $S$ of a sector of angle $x$ in a unit circle is $\frac{x}{2}$, since $$\frac{S}{\pi r^2} = \frac{x}{2 \pi r}, r = 1 \implies S = \frac{x}{2}$$ (Apparently, assumption (b) is Euclid VI 33. I haven't studied the proof, though.)
- (3) Prove, using a geometric argument, that $\frac{\sin(x)}{2} < \frac{x}{2} < \frac{\tan(x)}{2}$ for $x \in [0,\frac{\pi}{2})$. Deal similarly (not identically) with $(\frac{-\pi}{2}, 0]$. Prove that we always have $1 > \frac{\sin(x)}{x} > \cos(x)$ on $(\frac{-\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})$.
- (4) Derive (by a geometric argument, as done here) the usual angle addition formulas.
- (5) Noting that $|\sin(x)| < |x|$ (geometrically), conclude that $\lim_{x \to 0} \sin(x) = 0$. Use the identity - derived from (4) - that $$\cos(x) = 1 - 2\sin^2(\frac{x}{2}) = (1 - \sqrt{2}\sin(\frac{x}{2}))(1 + \sqrt{2}\sin(\frac{x}{2}))$$ and the product theorem for limits to conclude that $\lim_{x \to 0} \cos(x) = 1$.
- (6) Use the "Squeeze Theorem" and (3) to prove that $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin(x)}{x} = 1$, $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(x) - 1}{x} = 0$. Use (4) and (5) to establish continuity at all other values - e.g., $$\lim_{h \to 0} \sin(x_0 + h) = \lim_{h \to 0}\sin(x_0)\cos(h) + \sin(h)\cos(x_0) = \sin(x_0)$$
- (7) Now prove that $\sin(x), \cos(x)$ are differentiable.
A notably different approach is that of Spivak's Calculus. Spivak tacitly assumes that the first question has been answered, and notices that in that case,
$$ \pi = 2\int_{-1}^{1} \sqrt{1-x^2} dx $$
which resolves the second question, albeit not too directly. Also assuming that the area of a sector of an angle of $x$ radians is $\frac{x}{2}$, he defines
$$ A(x) = \frac{x \sqrt{1- x^2}}{2} + \int_{x}^{1} \sqrt{1-t^2} dt$$
The area function is a function of the $x$-coordinate, not an angle $x$; it tends from $\frac{\pi}{2}$ to $0$ as $x$ goes from $-1$ to $1$. However, $\forall x \in [0, \pi]$, we have $\exists !y \in [-1, 1]: A(y) = \frac{x}{2}$; this $y$ we set as $\cos(x)$, and we define $\sin(x) = \sqrt{1 - \cos^2(x)}$. (The uniqueness of the value of $\cos(x)$ is guaranteed by the fact that $A(x)$ is decreasing and continuous.) The remainder of Spivak's derivation is about extending these functions (by symmetry) to the rest of $\mathbb{R}$.
Although I am familiar with these derivations, they are rather prominently silent about the first question; I've never seen any answer to that question which impressed me as rigorous. I am not at all sure that there is an actual cut which one can write down (i.e., in set-builder notation, as an explicit subset of $\mathbb{Q}$ in the usual way) for $\pi$.