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The Möbius transformations are the maps of the form $$ f(z)= \frac{az+b}{cz+d}.$$ Can we characterize the Möbius transformations that map the unit disk

$$\{z\in \mathbb C: |z| <1\}$$

into itself?

Daniel
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    What have you tried so far? An obvious way is to try to solve $|f(e^{i\varphi})|=1$ – fgp Oct 08 '12 at 16:09
  • I mean $|z|<1 \Rightarrow |f(z)|<1$ – Daniel Oct 08 '12 at 16:15
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    ${z \in \mathbb{C}:\ |z|<1}$ is the unit disk, not the unit circle! – HorizonsMaths Oct 08 '12 at 16:30
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    @Daniel'kay. Please fix the question to say "unit disc", then! Anyway, the same question applies. Have you tried to solve $|f(re^{i\phi})| < 1$ for $r < 1$? – fgp Oct 08 '12 at 16:37
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    I think the set of analytic functions mapping the unit disc to itself reduce to Mobius transformations. – PAD Oct 08 '12 at 19:26
  • https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/M%C3%B6bius_transformation#Subgroups_of_the_Möbius_group – Did Dec 28 '17 at 22:53
  • This question is a little confusing in that it repeatedly asks for functions which map the unit disc into itself (or which satisfy $|z|<1\implies |f(z)|<1$) but the accepted answer and four of the five other answers instead treat the problem of finding functions which map the unit disc onto itself (or which satisfy $|z|<1\iff |f(z)|<1$). Which of these two very different questions is the intended one? – Ian Morris May 10 '18 at 10:16

7 Answers7

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Consider the function $$f(z)=\frac{e^{i \theta}(z-a)}{1- \bar {a}z}$$ where $a$ is in interior of the disk.

Now we have two parts to prove:

  1. The function $f$ maps unit circle to unit circle and $a$ to $0$.

  2. Every Möbius transformation that preserves the unit disk must be of the above form.

The second statement can be proved by noting that every Möbius transformation is uniquely determined by its action on $3$ points. Try looking at the points $1,0, \infty$.

xion3582
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TheJoker
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    Yes to the three points. Input is on the disk though, so no to $\infty$, though I realize the form is a transformed one...(+1 vote from me) – adam W Oct 08 '12 at 19:47
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    I don't understand. Möbius transforms are $\mathbb C_\infty \to \mathbb C_\infty$. Hence we may use any $3$ numbers. – TheJoker Oct 08 '12 at 19:57
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    He asks about the disk into the disk, so he is only interested in $|z|<1$ and that is why I am questioning the use of $\infty$. So if your function works (looks good to me), does it describe the entire set of possible functions? – adam W Oct 08 '12 at 20:57
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    These functions are sometimes called Blaschke factors. – Alice Dec 03 '13 at 21:22
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    @TheJoker I did the first part, could you give any hint on the second part. I mean how would I use the points? – mint Sep 26 '16 at 15:43
  • The expression you provide is indeed correct. But how is it derived? The factor $e^{i \theta}$ I understand, as it turns the circle, but what about the the other factors? – pendermath Sep 01 '19 at 09:31
  • TheJoker should answer @adamW 's question. It is an easy answer though by looking at points $1,,0,,a$ instead of points $1,,0,,\infty$. – Hans Jan 03 '22 at 07:34
  • @adamW what would a FLT of the radius 2 disk onto itself look like? would it just be 2 times this function or? – homosapien Oct 18 '22 at 15:52
  • @MyMathYourMath What is FLT? Anyway, I would think 2 times the function with half the input--map the input to the unit circle, then the output needs mapping from the unit circle – adam W Oct 19 '22 at 17:30
  • @adamW sweet that's what I got, z/2 in place of z and 2 times that. FLT is fractional linear transformation. – homosapien Oct 20 '22 at 15:25
  • @adamW how do I show if $\vert z \vert = 2$ then $f(z)$ equals 2? – homosapien Oct 22 '22 at 20:13
  • @MyMathYourMath set $z=2e^{i\theta}$ and then you might want to scale numerator/denominator by $e^{\frac{-i\theta}{2}}$ somewhere in your calculations--you should get magnitude 2! – adam W Oct 24 '22 at 02:26
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Most answers seem to be characterizing Möbius transformations which map the unit disk onto itself, which is relatively well-known. If you are asking which map the disk into itself, the article here gives a simple proof that $|z|<1 \Rightarrow |f(z)|<1$ if and only if $$|b\overline{d}-a\overline{c}|+|ad-bc|\leq |d|^2-|c|^2 $$

dke
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    Tried your link, but Google blocked the book from me. Though I am glad someone mentioned the difference between into and onto. – adam W Oct 08 '12 at 23:25
  • @adamW another link: http://www.ams.org/books/conm/211/2826/conm211-2826.pdf The result (Theorem 4) is in Section 4, Connection to matrices. – xFioraMstr18 Jul 20 '20 at 14:16
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$z\mapsto \frac{i-iz}{z+1}$ maps the unit circle to the real axis and its interior to the upper half plane. The maps $f(z)=\frac{az+b}{cz+d}$ fixing the upper half plane are possibly easier to describe, and you can combine them with the "disc to halfplane" and "halfplane to disk$ maps:

  • It must map $0$ to $\infty$ or a real number, hence $d=0$ or $\frac bd\in\mathbb R$.
  • It must map $\infty$ to $\infty$ or a real number, hence $c=0$ or $\frac ac\in\mathbb R$.
  • The $z$ with $f(z)=0$ must be $\infty$ or real, hence $a=0$ or $\frac ba\in\mathbb R$.

Also note that you may set one nonzero number wlog. to be $1$. This will hopefully helpp you

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These transformations make a group, isomorphic to $PSL_2(\mathbb R),$ which takes the upper half plane to itself. The general form, with complex numbers $\alpha, \beta$ and $|\alpha| > |\beta|,$ is $$ f(z) = \frac{\alpha z + \beta}{\bar{\beta} z + \bar{\alpha}}. $$ This is the result of taking real numbers $a,b,c,d$ with $ad-bc > 0$ and calculating $$ \left( \begin{array}{rr} 1 & -i \\ -i & 1 \end{array} \right) \cdot \left( \begin{array}{rr} a & b \\ c & d \end{array} \right) \cdot \left( \begin{array}{rr} 1 & i \\ i & 1 \end{array} \right) = \left( \begin{array}{rr} (a+d) +(b-c)i & (b+c) +(a-d)i \\ (b+c) + (d-a)i & (a+d) + (c-b)i \end{array} \right). $$

We need the modulus of $\alpha$ to be the larger so that $|f(0)| < 1.$ For your own comfort, check that $f(1), f(-1), f(i), f(-i)$ all have modulus $1.$

To get down to three real variables underlying the thing, we may divide through by the positive real number $|\alpha|,$ thereby demanding $\alpha = e^{i \theta}$ have modulus $1,$ then $|\beta| < 1,$ using a new variable $\gamma$ with $|\gamma| < 1$ we have $$ f(z) = \frac{ e^{i \theta} z + \gamma}{\bar{\gamma} z + e^{-i \theta}}. $$

Will Jagy
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Let me try to answer the OP's original question; i.e., to find all the Möbius transformations that map the unit circle to itself.

First, we have the result in one of the other answers that the Möbius maps sending the unit disc to itself consist of precisely the functions $$f(z)=\frac{e^{i \theta}(z-a)}{1- \bar {a}z}$$ where $a$ is in interior of the disk.

Now, recall that Möbius transformations are actually holomorphic automorphisms of the Riemann sphere. So by continuity, any of such transformations as above map the unit circle to itself. It remains to be seen what other Möbius transformations preserve it. But then, they send circles to circles, and if it sends some point in the interior of the unit disc to another point in the unit disc, by continuity, the interior unit disc is sent to itself, and the transformation belongs to the above class. On the other hand, if some point in the interior of the disc is sent outside, then if $f$ is the transformation, $1/f$ belongs to the previous class.

So the answer is that the Möbius transformations sending the unit circle to itself are precisely the Möbius transformations sending the unit disc to itself, and their multiplicative inverses.

azimut
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This is a fairly old question now, but I will add a another answer in case someone else arrives at it from the same perspective that I did.

I was looking in Ahlfors' book Conformal Invariants, and he states on the first page that another equivalent condition is that the map has the form $$\varphi(Z) = \frac{az+b}{\overline{b}z+\overline{a}}$$ with $|a|^2 - |b|^2 = 1$. In fact, since we can always multiply both coefficients by a real number $t \not=0$ the actual necessary and sufficient condition is $$|a|^2 > |b|^2.$$ So his condition also includes a normalization.

One can show that a map of this form can be put into the form $$\psi(z) = e^{i\alpha}\frac{z - z_0}{1 - \overline{z_0}z},$$ where $|z_0| < 1$ and conversely that a map of this second form can be put into the form above. Now we can use the fact that the conformal self-maps of the unit disk are exactly the maps that can be expressed in this form, which is proven for example on pp. 263-264 of Gamelin's book Complex Analysis.

SRS
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$|z|=1$ an arbitrary point on the unit circle (I am assuming that you meant to talk about complex points on the complex plane). So your reworded question is, does $a,b,c,d$ exist such that $$|z|=1 \Rightarrow \left|\frac{az+b}{cz+d}\right|=1$$ This is, using laws of multiplication within the norm, same as: $$|z|=1 \Rightarrow \left|az+b\right|= \left|cz+d\right|$$ And it looks to me that of all possibilities, none include shifts of any sort since they would shift the unit circle away from the origin. Thus one possibility is a rotation of the points of the unit circle:

$$f(z)=\frac{az}{d}$$ Where $\left| \frac{a}{d}\right|=1$. For the unit disk, $|z| \le 1$. It becomes a matter of the two linear functions. It would require $$\left|az+b\right| \le \left|cz+d\right| \quad $$ For every $|z| \le 1$. For the complex plane, that means the scaling and shifting of the disks, such that the one remains entirely within the other (well almost, as I can imagine a possibility of the particular values for a certain $z$ not satisfying the inequality).

If it is any more of a help, I imagine it as a scaling and shifting, but the shift must be one that does not "outrun" the scaling and shifting of the other. Since if the "race from the zero point" is ever being won by the numerator, the Möbius has value outside the unit circle.

I believe any characterization of such Möbius functions would involve a separate rotation for both the numerator and denominator, as that does not alter the magnitude. It would align the two (numerator and denominator) to be aligned if you will, so that the magnitude characterization of the function may be analyzed. So it would be considering: $$f'(z) = \frac{r_n(az+b)}{r_d(cz+d)}$$ where $r_n$ and $r_d$ are any magnitude one values that make analysis more convenient. The $f'(z)$ would then exhibit the exact same behavior in the magnitude, and each $r$ separately represents a rotation. Then, if they are chosen correctly (the fastest in the "race" vs the "slowest" or similar), the function may be considered only along a single path, and it would become the comparison of two lines, if one always has magnitude larger than the other in the range [-1,1], then their (magnitude) ratio is always less than one.

azimut
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adam W
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