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I wish to find all Möbius transformations $T(z)=(az+b)/(cz+d)$ that map the circle $C=\{z\in\Bbb C:|z|=R\}$ into itself.

My attempt: Is it sufficient to find all Möbius transformations $T$ such that $|T(R)|=1$, $|T(0)|\neq 1$ and $|T(\infty)|\neq 1$ ?

Bernard
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boaz
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2 Answers2

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I use the property that bilinear transformation maps inverse points w. r. t a circle to inverse points w. r. t. the image circle

Suppose that $w = \frac{az+b}{cz+d }$ is a transformation mapping $|z|=R$ onto $|w|=R$

Now $w=0$ , $w=\infty$ are inverse points for $|w|=R$ and they are transforms of

$z=-\frac{b}{a}, z=-\frac{d}{c}$

Respectively

$\implies -\frac{b}{a}, -\frac{d}{c}$

are inverse point for $|z|=R$

if we write $\alpha = -\frac{b}{a}$

inverse point of any point $\alpha$ W. R. T circle is $|z|=R$ is $\frac{R^2}{\bar{\alpha }}$

$ \implies \frac{-d}{c}= \frac{R^2}{\bar{\alpha }}$

So we rewrite $ w$

$w= \frac{a(z+b/a) }{c(z+d/c) }$

Using above relations

$w = \frac{a}{c} \frac{z-\alpha }{z- R^2/ \bar{\alpha }}$

$w= \frac{a\bar{\alpha }}{c}. \frac{z-\alpha }{\bar{\alpha }z-R^2}$

Let $K =\frac{a\bar{\alpha }}{c}.$

$$w = K \frac{z-\alpha }{\bar{\alpha }z-R^2}$$

Using fact $|w|=R, |z|=R$ you can easily verify $|K|=R^2$

ਮੈਥ
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If $T$ maps the $R$ circle into itself then $ z\mapsto {1 \over R} T(Rz)$ maps the unit circle into itself and a similar relationship holds in the opposite direction so we can assume that $R=1$.

We are looking for transformations with $ad \neq cb$ that the unit circle into itself. Note that we can assume $c=1$.

Suppose $T$ is such a transformation, then for $|z|=1$ we have $|az+b|^2=|z+d|^2$. In particular, $a \neq 0$ and $|a|^2 +|b|^2 + 2 \operatorname{re} (a\bar{b}z) = 1+|d|^2 + 2 \operatorname{re} (\bar{d}z)$ or $|a|^2 +|b|^2 + 2 \operatorname{re} ((a\bar{b}-\bar{d})z) -1 -|d|^2= 0$. Since this holds for all $|z|=1$ we must have $\bar{a}b=d$ and so $|a|^2 +|b|^2 -1 -|a|^2|b|^2 = 0$ which gives $(|a|^2-1)(|b|^2-1) = 0$.

Since $ad\neq cb$ we have $|a|^2b \neq b$ from which we get $|a|^2 \neq 1$ and so $|b| = 1$.

Hence I claim that $T$ has the form $T(z) = {az+e^{i \theta} \over z+\bar{a}e^{i \theta}}$ with $a \neq 0$ and $|a| \neq 1$.

It is straightforward to check that any such $T$ is a Möbius transformation and if $|z|=1$, then $T(z) = { 1\over e^{i \theta}z} { az + e^{i \theta} \over e^{-i\theta} + \bar{a} \bar{z}} = = { 1\over e^{i \theta}z} { az + e^{i \theta} \over \overline{ e^{i\theta} + {a} {z}} }$ and so $|T(z)| = 1$.

Hence $T$ maps the $R$ circle into itself iff $T$ has the form $T(z) = R{az+Re^{i \theta} \over z+\bar{a}Re^{i \theta}}$ with $R \neq 0$, $a \neq 0$ and $|a| \neq 1$.

copper.hat
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  • @MartinR: If a Möbius transformations maps the unit circle into the unit circle then it maps it onto the unit circle. This is because the inverse mapping (which must exist since it is Möbius) maps the unit circle into the unit circle. – copper.hat Jul 05 '20 at 20:11
  • Yes, I deleted my comment as soon as I realized that I had misread the question (“unit circle” vs “unit disk”). – Martin R Jul 06 '20 at 06:48
  • @MartinR: While solving the problem, it took me a while to realise that Möbius means it is invertible. Things are always clear afterwards :-). – copper.hat Jul 06 '20 at 07:05