This is inspired by my earlier duplicate question seen here: Is conjugation in infinite groups well behaved?
The answer to that question is no. This slight tweak might change the result, but I don't have much intuition for infinite groups (who does?).
Let $G$ be an infinite group, and let $M$ be a maximal subgroup (in the sense that there are no proper subgroups of $G$ containing $M$ that aren't $M$). Is it possible for $gMg^{-1}\subset M$, with the containment being proper?