I have found something very interesting in my eyes.
The following expression $$\frac{\prod\limits_{i=n+1}^{2n-1}i}{\prod\limits^{n-1}_{i=2}i}$$
(I think) always gives a natural number. Now, of course, I am interested in why this is so and I wanted to ask if someone has an approach for a proof...
Thank you :)
(And yes, I know that I should explain my proof so you can verify it, but I have no approach for an proof, so if you tell me which proof-method I should use I would try it on my own of course :) )
So:
$$\frac{\text{P}_1}{\text{P}_2}=\frac{\left(\frac{\left(2\text{n}-1\right)!}{\text{n}!}\right)}{\left(\text{n}-1\right)!}=\frac{1}{\text{n}!}\cdot\frac{\left(2\text{n}-1\right)!}{\left(\text{n}-1\right)!}=\frac{1}{2}\binom{2\text{n}}{\text{n}}$$
– Jan Eerland Jan 02 '17 at 13:32