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Lets say $a = 14, b = 20, m = 6$

$a \equiv b \pmod m $

$ 14 \equiv 20 \pmod 6$

$14 \equiv 2 $ is not true?

Because $20 \pmod 6 = 2$?

What am I doing wrong?

2 Answers2

1

$14 \equiv 2 \pmod 6$ is true. $14-2=12$ is divisible by $6$. Why do you think it is not true?

Ross Millikan
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  • Oh i didn't realize the mod m applied to both sides? Wait so what is the final answer on both sides? 2 is equivalent to 2? – James Mitchell Dec 07 '16 at 01:00
  • $\pmod m$ defines what we mean by equivalent. I would say it applies to the equivalence sign, not to either side of it. You can reduce each side to a representative, which we usually take to be one of $0,1,2,\ldots m-1$ and here is $2$. – Ross Millikan Dec 07 '16 at 01:03
  • So is $a \equiv b \pmod m$ the same as $a\mod m \equiv b \mod m$? – James Mitchell Dec 07 '16 at 01:17
  • I have only seen the left version in math. Computers regard mod as an operator and often write it $%$. In that case one should write the second as $a%m=b%m$ or $a \bmod m = b \bmod m$ because you are computing the representative, but it is a fine point. I think most people would accept your second version. – Ross Millikan Dec 07 '16 at 01:55
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$14$ and $20$ differ by a multiple of $6$. So do $14$ and $2$. All three are congruent modulo $6$.

Ethan Bolker
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