My teacher said no, but doesn't $f(z)=z+1$ which is continuous?
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In a broader sense, yes. – Vim Nov 04 '16 at 08:32
3 Answers
It's not continuous at $z=1$ because it is not defined there. If you plug $z=1$ in $\frac{z^2-1}{z-1}$, you obtain $\frac{0}{0}$ which is not defined.
You can't divide the numerator by $z-1$ if $z=1$, because then you're dividing by zero!

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Basically: The function is not defined at $z=1$ so in particular it cannot be continuous.
But yes: it can be continuously extended by setting $f(1)=2$, see for example What is a continuous extension?
A function $f$ which is continuous at point $t$:
1. should be defined at the point $t$: $f(t)$ exists;
2. should have limit when $x$ tends to $t$: $\lim_{x\to t}f(x)$ exists;
3. $f(t) = \lim_{x\to t}f(x)$ .
In this problem, $f(z)= z+1$ except $z=1$ and not defined at $z=1$.
If we can define $f(z)$ at $1$ , $f(1)=2$ then we can say $f(z)$ is continuous at $z=1$.
Sometimes you can misunderstand that "there exists a limit value" as "a function be continuous at that point".

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thanks for the editing, It's my first visit here and English is not my mother language. If you have more time then can you tell me how I can edit like yours, (math format)? – Young Choi Nov 04 '16 at 08:59
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