Currently I am going through Representation theory of semi-direct products by Reyes. At the begining of the article, the author defines the semidirect product as follows.
$G = H \cdot B$ is a semidirect product where $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$ and $B$ is isomorphic with a group of automorphisms of $H$.
This doesn't match with the definition given here which is:
Semidirect products.
We say that $G$ is (isomorphic to) a semidirect product of $M$ by $N$ if and only if there exist subgroups $H$ and $K$ of $G$ such that:
- $H\cong M$ and $K\cong N$;
- $H\triangleleft G$;
- $H\cap K=\{e\}$;
- $G=HK$.
Because, in the second definition $H$ is not required to be isomophic with a group of automorphism of $K$. So, can I say that the first definition is not a general definition of semidirect product?