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An element $a$ of the ring $(P,+,\cdot)$ is called idempotent if $a^2=a$. An idempotent $a$ is called nontrivial if $a \neq 0$ and $a \neq 1$.

My question concerns idempotents in rings $\mathbb Z_n$, with addition and multiplication modulo $n$, where $n$ is natural number. Obviously when $n$ is a prime number then there is no nontrivial idempotent. If $n$ is nonprime it may happen, for example $n=4, n=9$, that also there is no.

Is it known, in general, for what $n$ there are nontrivial idempotents and what is a form of such idempotents?

J. W. Tanner
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A.B
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    They certainly do occur: $n=6,a=3.$ – Andrew Jul 27 '12 at 19:07
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    There is a nontrivial idempotent in $\mathbb{Z}_n$ if and only if there is $1<a<n$ such that $n, |, a(a-1)$. This is because $a^2 \equiv a \pmod n \Leftrightarrow a^2-a \equiv 0 \pmod n$. I'm not entirely sure where you can go with this though! – Clive Newstead Jul 27 '12 at 19:14
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    @CliveNewstead Since $a$ and $a-1$ are relatively prime, you get that such $a$ exists if and only if $n$ has two relatively prime nontrivial divisors, and this is equivalent to $n$ having two distinct primes... – N. S. Jul 27 '12 at 19:31

5 Answers5

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As often happens when dealing with $\mathbf{Z}_n$, the Chinese remainder theorem is your friend. If the prime factorization of $n$ is $$ n=\prod_i p_i^{a_i}, $$ then by CRT we have an isomorphism of rings $$ \mathbf{Z}_n\cong\bigoplus_i \mathbf{Z}_{p_i^{a_i}}. $$ Observe that the isomorphism maps the residue class of an integer $m$ (modulo $n$) to a vector with all the components equal to the residue class of $m$ (this time modulo various prime powers): $$ \overline{m}\mapsto(\overline{m},\overline{m},\ldots,\overline{m}). $$ So the residue class of $m$ is an idempotent if and only if it is an idempotent modulo all the prime powers $p_i^{a_i}$.

Let us look at the case of a prime power modulus $p^t$. The congruence $x^2\equiv x\pmod{p^t}$ holds, iff $p^t$ divides $x^2-x=x(x-1)$. Here only one of the factors of, $x$ or $(x-1)$, can be divisible by $p$, so for the product to be divisible by $p^t$ the said factor then has to be divisible by $p^t$. Thus we can conclude that $x\equiv 0,1 \pmod{p^t}$ are the only idempotents modulo $p^t$. Therefore we require that $$ m\equiv 0,1\pmod{p_i^{a_i}} $$ for all $i$. By CRT these congruences are independent for different $i$, so the number of pairwise non-congruent idempotents is equal to $2^\ell$, where $\ell$ is the number of distinct prime factors $p_i$ of $n$.

J. W. Tanner
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Jyrki Lahtonen
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Hint $ $ Globally, idempotents in $\:\Bbb Z_{ n}\:$ correspond to factorizations of $\:n\:$ into two coprime factors, i.e. if $\:e^2 = e\in\Bbb Z_n\:$ then $\:n\:|\:e(e\!-\!1)\:$ thus $\:n = jk,\ j\:|\:e,\ k\:|\:e\!-\!1,\:$ so $\:(j,k)= 1\:$ by $\:(e,e\!-\!1) = 1.\:$ Conversely if $\:n = jk\:$ for $\:(j,k)= 1,\:$ then by CRT, $\:\Bbb Z_n\cong \Bbb Z_j\times \Bbb Z_k\:$ which has nontrivial idempotents $\:(0,1),\,(1,0).\:$ It is rather easy to further explicitly describe this correspondence. Some integer factorization algorithms search for such nontrivial idempotents.

This correspondence between idempotents and factorizations holds more generally at the structural level - see the Peirce Decomposition. and this answer.

Bill Dubuque
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  • It's worth noting here that if $x$ is an idempotent corresponding to a given $j$ and $k$, then $(p+)1-x$ is the other one, so it suffices to compute the idempotent corresponding to either $(0,1)$ or $(1,0)$. – rogerl May 29 '15 at 15:17
  • @rogerl Yes that is clear since $,(0,1)+(1,0) = (1,1) = 1\ \ $ – Bill Dubuque Jun 14 '15 at 20:54
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By the Chinese remainder theorem $\mathbf Z/n\mathbf Z$ is a product of more than one (unital) ring if and only if $n$ has more than one prime factor, and in this case $\mathbf Z/n\mathbf Z$ certainly has nontrivial idempotents. If on the other hand $n=p^k$ is a prime power, then all elements are either invertible (if not divisible by $p$) or nilpotent (if divisible by $p$) and this excludes the possibility of nontrivial idempotents. The case $n=1$ is a special case of a prime power (but the unique element now is both invertible and nilpotent; there are still no nontrivial idempotents of course).

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A start: You can figure it out! Let us start with a product $mn$ of relatively prime integers, neither equal to $1$. By the Chinese Remainder Theorem, there is an $x$ such that $x\equiv 0\pmod{m}$ and $x\equiv 1 \pmod{n}$. Then $x^2\equiv x \pmod{mn}$.

Generalize to a product of $k$ relatively prime integers. If you use the prime power factorization, you can get a complete list.

André Nicolas
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Let $m=p^{c_{1}}_{1}...p^{c_{n}}_{n}$ be a prime factorization of an integer $m$ with $c_{i}\geq1$ and $p_{i}$ are distinct prime numbers. Then the ring $\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}$ has $2^{n}$ idempotents and (modulo $m$) these are precisely of the form $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}h_{k}\epsilon_{k}$ where $\epsilon_{k}\in\{0,1\}$ and $h_{k}\in\left(\prod\limits_{\substack{i=1,\\ i\neq k}}^{n}p^{c_{i}}_{i}\right)\mathbb{Z}$ such that $h_{k}-1\in p^{c_{k}}_{k}\mathbb{Z}$.

Shaun
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