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$$\lim_{x\to\infty} x^2 \sin(\ln(\cos(\frac{\pi}{x})^{1/2}))$$

What I tried was writing $1/x=t$ and making the limit tend to zero and writing the cos term in the form of sin

Gem
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    Your question is missing a question. – Umberto P. Apr 22 '16 at 02:44
  • @UmbertoP. How , in the question we have to just evaluate the limit of the given function at infinity – Gem Apr 22 '16 at 02:47
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    There is a missing parenthesis in the expression. – Mark Viola Apr 22 '16 at 03:12
  • @user328114 Substitution is a good idea. I've posted a solution using a different substitution from yours and found a way forward that does not rely on L'Hospital's Rule, series expansion/asymptotic analysis, or other differential calculus approach. I hope that you find it as a useful alternative to the other approaches. -Mark – Mark Viola Apr 22 '16 at 04:15

7 Answers7

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Here, we present a way forward that does not rely on differential calculus. Rather, we use only elementary inequalities and the squeeze theorem. To that end, we proceed.

Inequalities 1:

Recall from basic geometry, that the sine function is bounded as

$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\theta \cos(\theta)\le \sin(\theta)\le \theta} \tag 1$$

for $0\le \theta\le \pi/2$ (SEE THIS ANSWER).

Letting $\theta = \arccos(t)$ in $(1)$ reveals

$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\sqrt{1-t^2}\le \arccos(t)\le \frac{\sqrt{1-t^2}}{t}} \tag 2$$

for $0<t\le 1$.

Inequalities 2:

In THIS ANSWER, I showed using only the limit definition of the exponential function and Bernoulli's Inequality the logarithm function satisfies the inequalities

$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\frac{t-1}{t}\le \log(t)\le t-1} \tag 3$$

for $t>0$.

Let $L$ be defined as the limit

$$L=\lim_{x\to \infty}x^2\sin\left(\log\left(\cos^{1/2}(\pi/x)\right)\right)$$

Enforce the substitution $x=\frac{1}{\pi}\arccos(t)$. Then, we can express the limit $L$ as

$$L=\lim_{t\to 1^-}\pi^2 \frac{\sin\left(\frac12\log\left(t\right)\right)}{\arccos^2(t)}$$

Applying inequalities $(1)-(3)$ we find that

$$\pi^2 \left(\frac{\frac12 \cos(\log(t))\,\frac{t-1}{t}}{\frac{1-t^2}{t^2}}\right)\le \pi^2 \frac{\sin\left(\frac12\log\left(t\right)\right)}{\arccos^2(t)}\le \pi^2 \left(\frac{\frac12 (t-1)}{(1-t^2)}\right)$$

or after simplifying

$$-\left(\frac{\pi^2}{2(1+t)}\right)t\,\cos(\log(t))\le \pi^2 \frac{\sin\left(\frac12\log\left(t\right)\right)}{\arccos^2(t)}\le -\left(\frac{\pi^2}{2(1+t)} \right) \tag 4$$

Applying the squeeze theorem to $(4)$ yields the coveted equality

$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\lim_{x\to \infty}x^2\sin\left(\log\left(\cos^{1/2}(\pi/x)\right)\right)=-\frac{\pi^2}{4}}$$

Mark Viola
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    Nice! It's good to have solutions that do not rely on Taylor series or other techniques... (although, I would argue that while it's good to know things can be done without them, learning these techniques is really important: as your answer shows, to compute such limits without them one has to be clever. With them, things are pretty much automatic and systematic.) [Also, small typo (?): the last word "inequality"... it's an equality) – Clement C. Apr 22 '16 at 11:12
  • @ClementC. Thank you! Much appreciative of the comment. And nice catch on the typo!! +1 -Mark – Mark Viola Apr 22 '16 at 12:16
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Using Taylor series for $\cos u$, $\sqrt{1+u}$, $\ln(1+u)$, and $\sin u$ when $u\to 0$. When $x\to \infty$, $\frac{1}{x} \to 0$, so

$$\cos\frac{\pi}{x} = 1- \frac{\pi^2}{2x^2} + o\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)$$ and $$\sqrt{ \cos(\frac{\pi}{x}) } = \sqrt{ 1- \frac{\pi^2}{2x^2} + o\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) } = 1- \frac{\pi^2}{4x^2} + o\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)$$ so that $$\ln \sqrt{ \cos(\frac{\pi}{x}) } = \ln\left (1- \frac{\pi^2}{4x^2} + o\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) \right) = - \frac{\pi^2}{4x^2} + o\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)$$ and finally $$ x^2 \sin \ln \sqrt{ \cos(\frac{\pi}{x}) } = x^2 \sin\!\left( - \frac{\pi^2}{4x^2} + o\!\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)\right) = -x^2 \left(\frac{\pi^2}{4x^2} + o\!\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)\right) = - \frac{\pi^2}{4} + o(1)$$

Clement C.
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  • How did you remove the square root – Gem Apr 22 '16 at 03:27
  • $\sqrt{1+u} = 1+\frac{u}{2} + o(u)$ when $u\to 0$. Or you could alternatively use the fact that $\ln \sqrt{} = \frac{1}{2} \ln$. But all the steps above are, by choice, done using Taylor expansions (known/classic ones, the ones mentioned at the beginning). – Clement C. Apr 22 '16 at 03:28
  • Can you please explain what did you do after writing 'finally' – Gem Apr 22 '16 at 03:48
  • Plugging the previous expansion into the sine, using that $\sin u=u+o(u)$... and multiplying the whole thing by the remaining $x^2$ of the original expression. If you're not familiar with Taylor expansions, don't worry -- there are other ways (see e.g. Dr. MV's answer); but I suggest you practice and read on them, since knowing the (few) very frequent series and how to combine and compose Taylor expansions leads to a very powerful and systematic way to, among other things, compute limits like this one. @user328114 – Clement C. Apr 22 '16 at 11:13
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$\ln(\cos(\pi /x)^{1/2}) = 1/4\, \ln(\cos (\pi /x)^2) = 1/4\, \ln(1 - (\sin (\pi /x))^2)$. Also, $\lim_{z \to 0}\frac {\sin z} z = 1$ and $\lim_{u \to 0 }\frac {\ln(1-u)} u = -1$ (for example by l'Hopital). Now:

$$x^2 \sin(\ln(\cos(\pi/x)^{1/2})) = \\[12pt] x^2\cdot \frac {\sin(\ln(\cos(\pi/x)^{1/2}))} {\ln(\cos(\pi/x)^{1/2}))} \cdot \frac {1/4 \,\ln(1 - (\sin(\pi/x)^2))} {(\sin(\pi /x))^2}\cdot \frac{(\sin(\pi/ x))^2}{(\pi/ x)^2}\cdot (\pi/x)^2 $$

Combine the first and last factor to get $\pi^2$, the second and fourth factor both have limit 1, and the middle factor has limit $-1/4$. So the overall answer is $-\pi^2/4$.

Many similar questions can be reduced to fraction algebra and common limits, without using Taylor series.

  • I have no idea why this received a down vote. +1 ... I posted an answer in which I used only basic inequalities, obtainable without differential calculus, and then applied the squeeze theorem. -Mark – Mark Viola Apr 22 '16 at 04:21
  • perfect answer. +1 I was going to post a similar answer and I stopped when I saw this. – Paramanand Singh Apr 22 '16 at 08:32
  • A quick remark: L'Hopital itself (in the "(for example by l'Hopital)") would also be unnecessary or circular: this is basically the very definition of the derivative of $f(u) = \sin u$ and $g(u)=\ln(1-u)$ at $0$. – Clement C. Apr 22 '16 at 11:09
  • @ClementC. - Totally agreed. Where I grew up using l'Hopital here would be considered a crime. Where I live now, NOT using l'Hopital would be considered a crime. My point with the solution I offered was the "decomposition" of the problem into smaller, almost trivial steps, more so than the actual evaluation of each limit. –  Apr 22 '16 at 11:32
  • Fair enough :) (and also, nice answer. ) – Clement C. Apr 22 '16 at 11:35
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Notice that

\begin{align*} \ln\big(\cos(\pi/x)^{1/2}\big) &= \frac 1 2 \ln \cos \frac{\pi}{x} \\ &= \frac 1 2 \ln \left(1 - \frac 1 2\frac{\pi^2}{x^2} + O\left(\frac 1 {x^4}\right)\right) \\ &= -\frac 1 4 \frac{\pi^2}{x^2} + O \left( \frac 1 {x^4}\right) \end{align*}

Now do you see how to show that the desired limit is $-\pi^2/4$?

  • @ForgotALot Indeed I did, thanks. –  Apr 22 '16 at 02:53
  • Can you please elaborate – Gem Apr 22 '16 at 03:02
  • How did you remove the logarithm – Gem Apr 22 '16 at 03:05
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    @user328114 Are you asking about what is currently written (if so, do you know about Taylor expansions?), or what is missing and left to do? – Clement C. Apr 22 '16 at 03:05
  • @ClementC. I know Taylor expansions but I couldn't understand how to remove the logarithm – Gem Apr 22 '16 at 03:06
  • @user328114 You have $\frac{\ln(1+u)}{u} \xrightarrow[u\to 0]{} 1$, or put differently (Taylor series expansion to order $u$) $\ln(1+u) = u + o(u)$. This is "removing the logarithm," taking $u=- \frac{\pi^2}{2x^2} + O(\frac{1}{x^4})$. (See also my answer, which is basically the same but 5 mn later.) – Clement C. Apr 22 '16 at 03:06
  • @ClementC. Thanks sir got it – Gem Apr 22 '16 at 03:09
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Push $x^2$ to the bottom, then apply L'Hospital rule. $\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{\sin (\frac{\ln (\cos (\pi/x)}{2})}{x^{-2}}$ \ applying L'Hospital once and some simplification you will get, \ $-\pi^2/4 \lim_{x\to \infty} [\frac{\tan (\pi/x)}{\pi/x} \cos (\frac{\ln (\cos (\pi/x)}{2})]=-\pi^2/4$.

Sanwar
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  • I have no idea why this received a down vote. +1 ... I posted an answer in which I used only basic inequalities, obtainable without differential calculus, and then applied the squeeze theorem. -Mark – Mark Viola Apr 22 '16 at 04:22
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Using $\pi/x=t$, you can compute $$ \lim_{t\to0^+}\frac{\pi^2}{t^2}\sin\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\cos t\right) $$ Pulling the exponent out of the logarithm is possible because $\cos t$ is positive in a neighborhood of $0$.

Now recall that $$ \cos t=1-\frac{t^2}{2}+o(t^2) $$ so $$ \ln(\cos t)=-\frac{t^2}{2}+o(t^2) $$ and so your limit is $$ \lim_{t\to0^+}-\frac{\pi^2}{4}\frac{t^2+o(t^2)}{t^2} $$

egreg
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By Taylor limited to the useful terms ($\cos(t)\approx1-\dfrac{t^2}2$, $\ln(1+t)\approx t$, $\sin(t)\approx t$),

$$\cos\left(\frac\pi x\right)\approx1-\frac{\pi^2}{2x^2},$$

$$\ln\left(\left(1-\frac{\pi^2}{2x^2}\right)^{1/2}\right)\approx-\frac12\frac{\pi^2}{2x^2},$$

$$-\sin\left(\frac{\pi^2}{4x^2}\right)\approx-\frac{\pi^2}{4x^2}.$$

Hence $$-\frac{\pi^2}4.$$


But how do we known how many terms to keep ?

The cosine gives even terms, with the constant coefficient $1$. The logarithm suppresses the coefficient $1$ and leaves the next term unchanged. The sine also leaves this term unchanged.