From the Generating function for Legendre Polynomials:
$$\Phi(x,h)=(1-2xh+h^2)^{-1/2}\quad\text{for}\quad \mid{h}\,\mid\,\lt 1$$
My text states that:
For $x=1$ $$\Phi(1,h)=\color{red}{(1-2h+h^2)^{-1/2}=\frac{1}{1-h}}=1+h+h^2+\cdots$$
My question is about the justification of the equality marked $\color{red}{\mathrm{red}}$.
Since although $$\Phi(1,h)=(1-2h+h^2)^{-1/2}=\Big((1-h)(1-h)\Big)^{-1/2}$$$$=\Big((1-h)^2\Big)^{-1/2}=\color{#180}{\frac{1}{1-h}}=1+h+h^2+\cdots\tag{1}$$
as required.
I could also write $$\Phi(1,h)=(1-2h+h^2)^{-1/2}=\Big((h-1)(h-1)\Big)^{-1/2}$$$$=\Big((h-1)^2\Big)^{-1/2}=\color{blue}{\frac{1}{h-1}}=\frac{1}{h}\left(1-\frac{1}{h}\right)^{-1}\ne 1+h+h^2+\cdots\tag{2}$$
Why is it that $\Phi(1,h)$ is equal to $(1)$ but not equal to $(2)$? I think the answer lies somewhere with the fact that $\bbox[yellow]{\mid \,h\mid\,\lt 1}$ but I'm not quite sure how to justify it completely.
You may be wondering why I'm asking such a question, as one user pointed out that given my rep I should know this answer easily. The fact of the matter is I do not know the answer. I'm just looking for a simple English explanation as to why $\Phi(1,h)\ne \color{blue}{\dfrac{1}{h-1}}$. Although I usually prefer hints; I was given so many hints on this question but none of them helped. So if someone could literally spell out the answer to me I would be most grateful.
Thank you.