Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}$ be a function Lebesgue summable on all $\mu$-measurable and bounded subsets of $\mathbb{R}^n$, where $\mu$ is the usual Lebesgue measure defined on $\mathbb{R}^n$, and let $g:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}$ be a function of class $C^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$ whose support is contained in the compact subset $V\subset\mathbb{R}^n$. That implies that all the derivatives of $g$, up to the $k$-th, are bounded and supported within $V$.
I suspect that these conditions are enough to guarantee that the function $$h(\boldsymbol{x}):=\int_V f(\boldsymbol{y}-\boldsymbol{x})g(\boldsymbol{y})\,d\mu_{\boldsymbol{y}}$$is of class $C^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$. In fact, I notice, if I am not wrong, that $$h(\boldsymbol{x})=\int_{V-\boldsymbol{x}} f(\boldsymbol{y})\bar{g}(\boldsymbol{y}+\boldsymbol{x})\,d\mu_{\boldsymbol{y}}=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(\boldsymbol{y})\bar{g}(\boldsymbol{y}+\boldsymbol{x})\,d\mu_{\boldsymbol{y}}$$where $$\bar{g}(\boldsymbol{y}) := \begin{cases} g(\boldsymbol{y}), & \boldsymbol{y}\in V \\ 0, & \boldsymbol{y}\in\mathbb{R}^n\setminus V \end{cases}$$and $V-\boldsymbol{x}=\{\boldsymbol{y}\in\mathbb{R}^n:\boldsymbol{y}+\boldsymbol{x}\in V\}$, and I suppose that the conditions on $g$ may be enough to allow us to differentiate under the integral sign.
Is my intuition that $h\in C^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$ correct and, if it is, how can we prove it?
A trial of mine: I know a corollary of Lebesgue's dominated convergence theorem that
- if $f:V\times [a,b]\to \mathbb{R}$, $(\boldsymbol{x},t)\mapsto f(\boldsymbol{x},t)$ with $V$ measurable is such that $\forall t\in[a,b]\quad f(-,t)\in L^1(V)$, i.e. the function $\boldsymbol{x}\mapsto f(\boldsymbol{x},t) $ is Lebesgue summable on $V$,
- and if there is a neighbourhood $B(t_0,\delta)$ of $t_0$ such that, for almost all $\boldsymbol{x}\in V$ and for all $t\in B(t_0,\delta)$, $\left|\frac{\partial f(\boldsymbol{x},t)}{\partial t}\right|\le\varphi(\boldsymbol{x})$, where $\varphi\in L^1(V) $, then $$\frac{d}{dt}\int_V f(\boldsymbol{x},t) d\mu_{\boldsymbol{x}}\bigg|_{t=t_0}=\int_V\frac{\partial f(\boldsymbol{x},t_0)}{\partial t}d\mu_{\boldsymbol{x}}$$but I am not able to find a proper $\varphi$ to use in this context. Nevertheless I would not be amazed if there were an even more straightforward method to prove that the integral and derivative sign can be commutated...