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I'm a TA in multivariable calculus course, and I met the following problem.

If when $(x,y)$ goes to origin along paths $y=mx^k$ and $x=0$ for all $m,k$, $f(x,y)$ along all these paths converges to a same number, can we conclude $\lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} f(x,y)$ exist?

If not, what class of paths where the condition is satisfied, is enough to guarantee the existence of a limit of a function?

The purpose of this question is to find some sort of the general rule for students to see limit exists without using $\epsilon-\delta$ language or polar coordinate system. In fact, it's clear that if $$\lim_{r \rightarrow 0}f(rcost,rsint)$$converges to the same number uniformly for all $t$, then by the negation of the definition of limit, $$\lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)}f(x,y)$$ exists. But this is not what I want, because students cannot understand.

I really appreciate if anyone can give me any comments or ideas of this question. Thank you very much in advance!

student
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    "because students cannot understand" isn't that your job as a TA to make them understand?! – adjan Feb 17 '16 at 08:03
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    @adjan, to be honest, they are not trained in the rigorous mathematical proof style. They like to apply known formulas and results without thinking. No students are curious about reasoning, because they have been overwhelmed in a lot of boring calculating-based homework problems. Also as a TA, I'm not allowed to talk about more things beyond what I'm supposed to do by the head of all TA's in our department. So one purpose of the question is to find whether the claim in the question above is true, so that the students can safely apply the result. – student Feb 17 '16 at 08:09
  • What exactly is $k $ in your case? A natural number? Or can $k>0$ be chosen arbitrarily? – PhoemueX Feb 17 '16 at 09:02
  • @PhoemueX, $k$ is any rational number, for example. – student Feb 17 '16 at 09:29

1 Answers1

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EDITED (Final version).

This example shows that no reasonably simple class of paths suffices to analyze the behavior at a point of a given function $f\colon \mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{R}$. Let $\epsilon\colon \mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ be such that $\epsilon(y)\to 0$ as $y\to 0$ and define \begin{equation} f(x, y)=\begin{cases} \displaystyle \frac{\left( \epsilon(y) - x\right)^2}{\epsilon(y)^2 + x^2} , & (x, y)\ne (0,0) \\ \displaystyle 1, & (x, y)=(0,0) \end{cases} \end{equation} Any substitution $$\begin{array}{ccccc} x=\gamma(y),& \text{with }&\epsilon=o(\gamma)&\text{or}& \gamma=o(\epsilon)\end{array} $$ produces the limit $$ \lim_{y\to 0} f(\gamma(y), y)= 1, $$ so the function is continuous along the path. However, the substitution $$ x=m\epsilon(y),\qquad m \in\mathbb{R} $$ produces the limit $$ \lim_{y\to 0} f(m\epsilon(y), y)=1-\frac{2m}{1+m^2}, $$ so the function is almost never continuous along this path (this only happens in the case $m=0$).

Choosing $\epsilon(y)=\exp\left(-y^{-2}\right)$ produces a discontinuous function $f=f(x, y)$ that is continuous along all polynomial paths $$ x=a_1y + a_2 y^2 +\dots + a_ny^n,\qquad n\in\mathbb{N}. $$

This said, the question does admit a positive answer, but of little practical use I am afraid:

Fact. Let $f\colon \mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{R}$. The following are equivalent:

  1. One has that $\displaystyle \lim_{(x, y)\to (0,0)} f(x, y)=L$.

  2. For any sequence $(x_n, y_n)\to (0,0)$, one has that $f(x_n, y_n)\to L$.

  3. For any continuous curve $\gamma\colon [0, 1]\to\mathbb{R}^2$ such that $\gamma(0)=(0,0)$ one has that $\displaystyle \lim_{t\to 0} f(\gamma(t))=L$.

  4. For any smooth curve $\eta \colon [0,1]\to\mathbb{R}^2$ such that $\eta(0)=(0,0)$ one has that $\displaystyle \lim_{t \to 0} f(\eta(t))=L$.

proof. It is clear that $1.\Leftrightarrow 2. \Rightarrow 3.\Rightarrow 4.$ Let us only prove the converse implication $3.\Rightarrow 2.$ Consider a sequence $(x_n, y_n)\to (0,0)$. Define a continuous path $\gamma\colon [0,1]\to \mathbb{R}^2$ as follows: $$ \gamma(t) = \Big( (n+1)(nt-1)x_{n+1} + n[(n+1)t-1]x_n ; (n+1)(nt-1)y_{n+1} + n[(n+1)t -1]y_n\Big)$$ for $t\in\left[\frac{1}{n+1}, \frac1n\right]$. (This is the piecewise linear path with the property that $\gamma\left(\frac1n\right)=(x_n, y_n)$ and $\gamma\left(\frac{1}{n+1}\right)=(x_{n+1}, y_{n+1})$). By assumption, $$ f(\gamma(t))\to L,\qquad t\to 0.$$ Therefore, $$ f(x_n, y_n)=f\left(\gamma\left(\frac1n\right)\right) \to L,\qquad n\to\infty.$$ $\square$

Remark. The proof that $4.\Rightarrow 2.$ is the same, with the only added technical difficulty that the path $\gamma$ must be constructed smooth.

  • May I add that I sympathize with your difficulties. I often feel the same myself in my own teaching experience. It is not easy at all. – Giuseppe Negro Feb 17 '16 at 10:08
  • Thank you very much for your concrete examples and facts. I'm not sure whethr I've got the right point from your answer. I also have a lot of examples at hand, but as far as I know, if a limit doesn't exist, I can always find a path $y=x^k$ or $x=y^k$ for some $k$ to show limit is not identical when $k$ varies. I still cannot rigorously prove the claim that if for any path above along which the limit is identical, then the limit exist. I do believe the claim is not true though. – student Feb 17 '16 at 10:10
  • I really appreciate your effort, but I think what I'm trying to ask about is the following. Let $S={(x,y): y=mx^k, k>0, m \in \mathbb{R}} \cup {(x,0)}$. If for any $(x, \gamma(x)) \in S$, there is a universal constant $L$ such that $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} f(x, \gamma(x))=L$, then is it true $\lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow 0} f(x,y)=L$? The point here is that $S$ is strictly smaller then the set of smooth curves and even polynomial curves, and the elements of $S$ exhaust all the powers. – student Feb 17 '16 at 18:03
  • @student: I have done some cosmetics to the answer. – Giuseppe Negro Feb 18 '16 at 09:56