Let $f(z)=\frac{1}{1+z+z^2}=\frac{1-z}{1-z^3}=1-z+z^3-z^4+z^6-z^7\dots$.
Then this is the derivative of $$\frac{z}{1}-\frac{z^2}{2}+\frac{z^4}{4}-\frac{z^5}{5}+\cdots$$.
Now, the anti-derivative of $\frac{1}{1+z+z^2}=\frac{4}{(2z+1)^2+3}$. Can be computed, and then take the limit as $z\to 1$.
Wolfram gives the anti-derivative as:
$$ \frac{2 \tan^{-1}((2 z+1)/\sqrt{3})}{\sqrt{3}}$$
[Not a hard integral to do by hand, just not feeling able to do an integral at the moment.]
As $z\to 1$ this gives $\frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{3}}$.
Why can we let $z\to 1$ to get the value? Mumble mumble something mumble analytic function, mumble, then a miracle occurred. I forget why we can do this, but we definitely have to know the series converges to do this :)
This next step is a work on progress.
More generally if $p(z)=a_0+a_1z+\cdots a_{d-1}z^{d-1}$ is a polynomial then:
$$\frac{p(z)}{1-z^d}=-\frac{1}{d}\sum_{k=0}^{d-1}\frac{p(\zeta_d^i)\zeta_d^i}{z-\zeta_d^i}$$
where $\zeta_d$ is a primitive $d$th root of $1$. The anti-derivative will be in terms of complex logarithms, and won't converge as $z\to 1$ unless $p(1)=0$.
Then the anti-derivative at $z=1$ will be $$-\frac{1}{d}\sum_{i=1}^{d-1} p(\zeta_d^i)\zeta_d^i
\log(1-\zeta_d^i)$$
Since we are looking at complex logarithms, that's going to involve $\arctan$ and the natural logarithm.