For $A, B$ $n\times n$ complex matrices, does $(AB)^n=0$ imply $(BA)^n=0$

Asked May 23 '12 at 16:16

Active May 23 '12 at 16:27

Viewed 86 times

Possible Duplicate:
Non-commuting matrices and nilpotence

I had this "proof or counterexample question". Anyone has any ideas?

edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20

Community

asked May 23 '12 at 16:16

Spook

hmm, maybe Jordan form can be of use ? (just an idea, nothing solid...) – Belgi May 23 '12 at 16:20
1

This is a repeat. – Arturo Magidin May 23 '12 at 16:29

0 Answers0