Suppose $\{f_n\}$ is a sequence of functions in $L^2[0,1]$ such that $f_n(x)\rightarrow 0$ almost everywhere on $[0,1]$. If $\|f_n(x)\|_{L^2[0,1]}\le 1$ for all $n$ , then $$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \int_0^1 f_n(x)g(x)~dx =0$$ for all $g\in L^2[0,1]$.
I feel I have to use dominated convergence theorem, but I can't fined the dominating functions. Thanks for helping.