Okay the title makes no sense.
I have a two variable function, $f(x,t)$. When is it that $$ \left(\frac \partial{\partial x} f(x,t) \right)\bigg| _{t=0} = \frac{d}{dx} f(x,0)$$?
My guess is that it works if $f(x,t)$ is continuous with respect to $t$ in $0$, but I'm not sure.
Note that it does not work in general,since $f(x,t) = x^t / t$ is a counterexample;
$$\frac 1x = \left(\frac \partial{\partial x} f(x,t) \right)\bigg| _{t=0} \neq \frac{d}{dx} f(x,0) $$
As $f(x,0)$ does not exists in the first place.