We say that for a number $R$, $R^0 =1$, but if $R=0$ how can $R^0$ be $1$?
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1What a nice and well posed question! Also very aesthetic !(+1) – tired Jul 11 '15 at 16:17
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4Lets be Nice .This is OP's first question – Taylor Ted Jul 11 '15 at 16:21
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This might get you started. – Ken Jul 11 '15 at 16:27
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In other words, you are asking why $0^0=1$.
The answer is: Because mathematicians defined it like so.
There are reasons to do this. One reason is that this makes the binomial theorem $$(x+y)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} x^{k}y^{n-k}$$
also valid when $x=-y$, or when $x=0$ or $y=0$, without having to say its invalid in that case. Especially $x=-y$ is important in this case.

wythagoras
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