Let $f: A \to R$ be a homomorphism of commutative rings, and let $I$ be an ideal of $R$.
Is it true that $R/I \otimes_A R/I \cong (R \otimes_A R)/(I \otimes_A I)$ ?
After obtaining the surjection $g: R \otimes_A R \to R/I \otimes_A R/I$, I have a problem of showing that the kernel of $g$ equals $I \otimes_A I$; I can only show directly that $I \otimes_A I \subseteq Kerg$.
Any help will be appreciated.
Edit: Actually, my question is a special case of an already asked and answered question: Why does $(A/I)\otimes_R (B/J)\cong(A\otimes_R B)/(I\otimes_R 1+1\otimes_R J)$? (this reference appears in a comment of @user26857).