3

Let $f: A \to R$ be a homomorphism of commutative rings, and let $I$ be an ideal of $R$.

Is it true that $R/I \otimes_A R/I \cong (R \otimes_A R)/(I \otimes_A I)$ ?

After obtaining the surjection $g: R \otimes_A R \to R/I \otimes_A R/I$, I have a problem of showing that the kernel of $g$ equals $I \otimes_A I$; I can only show directly that $I \otimes_A I \subseteq Kerg$.

Any help will be appreciated.

Edit: Actually, my question is a special case of an already asked and answered question: Why does $(A/I)\otimes_R (B/J)\cong(A\otimes_R B)/(I\otimes_R 1+1\otimes_R J)$? (this reference appears in a comment of @user26857).

user237522
  • 6,467

2 Answers2

1

First of all, let's be careful: $I\otimes_A I\to R\otimes_A R$ may not be injective, so presumably $(R\otimes_A R) / (I\otimes_A I)$ is supposed to be the quotient by the image of this map.

Anyway, this is false even when $f$ is the identity: then the left-hand side is isomorphic to $R/I$, while the right-hand side is isomorphic to $R/I^2$.

Andrew Dudzik
  • 30,074
1

In fact, the kernel of $g$ is $I\otimes_AR+R\otimes_AI$, so the correct isomorphism is $$(R\otimes_AR)/(I\otimes_AR+R\otimes_AI)\simeq R/I\otimes_AR/I.$$

user26857
  • 52,094