Does it converge or diverge or we can't tell?
$$∑_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n$$
Or is there simply no concrete answer?
Thanks in advance.
Does it converge or diverge or we can't tell?
$$∑_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n$$
Or is there simply no concrete answer?
Thanks in advance.
Hint: If $\sum a_n$ converges, you must have $a_n \to 0$. Does this happen here?
That depends on how you are planning to use that sum. I believe that there are physicist who will insist on the expression being a half, but mathematically there is no convergence. The partial sums are zero and one alternatingly, therefore no limit exists.
If you go for the physics approach you will get the value thus:
Let $S=\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^n$
Then $(-1)S=S-1$ since the multiplication just shifts the sum by one. Therefore $S=\frac{1}{2}$. This is similiar to the way you determine the value of a geometric series, if you overlook the fact that $S$ is of course undefined in the first place. So if $S$ is to have any value it will be $\frac{1}{2}$ since that's the only value that exhibits the same properties as the Sum.
So if this sum occurs somewhere but you know it must be representative of some finite number because it represents something physical, it's $\frac{1}{2}$.
When we say a series converges, we mean that the sequence of partial sums approaches a limit. Let's consider the sequence of partial sums of your series: $$\begin{matrix}-1 & = & -1 \\ -1 + 1 &= &0 \\ -1 + 1 - 1 &= &-1\end{matrix}$$ and so on, so it keeps alternating from $-1$ to $0$. It therefore doesn't approach a unique value. The series therefore diverges.
Also, when you ask "is there no concrete answer", it's clear you're misunderstanding. A given series either converges or diverges, and there's no in-between. When we say a series diverges, we only mean that it doesn't converge.