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I stumbled across an odd fact while thinking about Markov chains, and I have an odd proof for it.

Claim: Let $P$ be the transition matrix of a finite irreducible aperiodic Markov chain, and assume that $P$'s left eigenvectors are orthogonal. Then $P$ is doubly stochastic.

Is this a special case of some well known result? In any case, here's my proof.

Proof: Let $n$ denote the number of states. Since $P$ is the transition matrix of a finite irreducible aperiodic Markov chain, there is a unique stationary distribution $\pi$ and for any initial distribution $\mu$ there holds $\mu P^t \rightarrow \pi$ when $t \rightarrow \infty$. Let $\mu$ be an arbitrary distribution, let $t \geq 0$, and consider the inner product $\langle \mu P^t,\pi \rangle$.

Let $\{v_i\}$ be an orthonormal basis of left eigenvectors for $P$ whose corresponding eigenvalues are $\{\lambda_i\}$ with $v_1 = \pi/\|\pi\|_2$ and $\lambda_1 = 1$, and write $\mu = \sum_{i=1}^n{\alpha_i v_i}$. Then $$ \langle \mu P^t,\pi \rangle = \langle \sum_{i=1}^n{\alpha_i v_i P^t},\pi \rangle = \sum_{i=1}^n{\alpha_i \lambda_i^t \langle v_i,\pi\rangle} = \alpha_1 \langle v_1,\pi \rangle = \alpha_1 \|\pi\|_2. $$

So $(\langle \mu P^t,\pi \rangle)_{t=0}^{\infty}$ is a contant series. On the other hand, $\mu P^t \rightarrow \pi$ so $\langle \mu P^t,\pi \rangle \rightarrow \langle \pi,\pi \rangle$.

Now, if a constant series converges to a value, then all of the elements of the series are equal to the value. Therefore $\langle \mu,\pi \rangle=\langle \pi,\pi \rangle$.

This holds for any distribution $\mu$. In particular consider indicator vectors $e_i$: We have that for any $i,j \in [n]$, $$ \langle e_i,\pi\rangle = \langle \pi,\pi\rangle=\langle e_j,\pi\rangle \Rightarrow \pi_i = \pi_j. $$ So $\pi$ is uniform. Thus, $\bar{1}\cdot P = \bar{1}$, so $P$'s columns all sum to 1 and $P$ is doubly stochastic. $\square$

This is a very strange proof - I've never seen a proof that shows that two values are equal because the first belongs to a constant series that converges to the second value.

Can anyone think of a direct, simple proof for this claim? Is this claim a special case of some well known result in linear algebra?

Zur Luria
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1 Answers1

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I'm not sure if this is a well-known result or not, but it can be viewed as a direct consequence of a characterisation of doubly stochastic matrices that I proved in another thread, namely,

a stochastic matrix is doubly stochastic if and only if its operator norm is 1.

Your transition matrix is orthogonally diagonalisable with dominant eigenvalue 1. Hence its operator norm is equal to 1. Note that we don't need the assumptions of irreducibility or aperiodicity.

user1551
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