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Using the Taylor expansion

$$f(x+a) = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{a^k}{k!}\frac{d^k }{dx^k}f(x)$$

one can formally express the sum as the linear operator $e^{a\frac{d}{dx}}$ to obtain

$$f(x+a) = e^{a\frac{d}{dx}}f(x).$$

But, does a linear operator $\hat A$ exist such that

$$ f(\alpha\cdot x) = \hat A(\alpha) f(x)$$

for some $\alpha\in\mathbb C$?

3 Answers3

16

The exponential representation of the Taylor series that you mention is related to the fact that the operator $\mathrm d/\mathrm dx$ is the generator of translations. That is, a translation can be viewed as the exponentiation of an infinitesimal translation, and the corresponding transformation of a function can likewise be viewed as the exponentiation of the transformation corresponding to an infinitesimal translation. To first order, the translation $x\to x+\epsilon$ has the effect $f(x)\to f(x+\epsilon)=f(x)+\epsilon\mathrm d/\mathrm dx f(x)$ and thus corresponds to multiplication with the operator $1+\epsilon\mathrm d/\mathrm dx$; applying this operation $a/\epsilon$ times leads to $ x\to x+a$ and $f\to(1+\epsilon\mathrm d/\mathrm dx)^{a/\epsilon}f$, which goes to $\exp(a\mathrm d/\mathrm dx)f$ for $\epsilon\to0$.

Applying the same approach, we can write $\alpha=\exp(\log\alpha)$ and consider the scaling $x\to\alpha x$ as $\log\alpha/\epsilon$ applications of the infinitesimal scaling $x\to(1+\epsilon)x$. The corresponding infinitesimal transformation of $f$ is $f(x+\epsilon x)=f(x)+\epsilon x\mathrm d/\mathrm dxf(x)=(1+\epsilon x\mathrm d/\mathrm dx)f$, and applying this $\log\alpha/\epsilon$ times and taking $\epsilon\to0$ yields $f\to\exp(\log\alpha x\mathrm d/\mathrm dx)f$. For instance, you can check this for $f(x)=x^n$; in this case $x\mathrm d/\mathrm dx f=nf$, so this yields $f\to\exp(n\log\alpha)f=\alpha^n f$ as expected.

joriki
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  • interesting, so the $x^n$ form the Eigenbase of scaling – Tobias Kienzler Mar 05 '12 at 12:27
  • @joriki This is so enlightening! – Pedro Apr 01 '12 at 02:48
  • @Peter: I'm glad to hear that :-) – joriki Apr 01 '12 at 02:49
  • @joriki What is this theory called, or what is it part of? – Pedro Apr 01 '12 at 02:53
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    @Peter: I learned about this in physics, where it's part of the treatment of continuous symmetry operations like translations and rotations; in mathematics I think it's part of the theory of Lie groups and Lie algebras, and specifically the exponential map. – joriki Apr 01 '12 at 03:05
  • Here we start with a power series and get an operator. Is this reversible? For instance, if I use $\sin$ instead of $\exp$, what is $\sin!\left(a\frac{d}{dx}\right)f(x)$? – Antonio Vargas Apr 01 '12 at 03:43
  • @Antonio You can ask here in math.SE and you'll surely get an answer. – Pedro Apr 01 '12 at 04:17
  • @PeterT.off indeed I shall tomorrow. – Antonio Vargas Apr 01 '12 at 04:19
  • @AntonioVargas interesting question, don't forget to post a link here after you posted the question - I think the answer is $\frac1{2i}(f(x+ia) - f(x-ia))$, while using $\cosh$ you'd get the average of $f(x\pm a)$. Now that you mention these, there should be a nice expression for the symmetrization of a function as well, something like $\exp\left(i\frac\pi2\frac d{d\ln z}\right)\cosh\left(i\frac\pi2\frac d{d\ln z}\right)$ (or $\sinh$ for the antisymmetrization) – Tobias Kienzler Apr 01 '12 at 09:28
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    @TobiasKienzler I have posted the question here. – Antonio Vargas Apr 01 '12 at 19:16
14

Based on Norbert's comment the answer should be

$$ f(\alpha\cdot x) = \alpha^{x\frac{d}{d x}}f(x)$$

To see this, just define $g(y):=f(e^y)$ such that $f(x) = g(\ln x)$, then one obtains

$$ f(\alpha x) = g(\ln\alpha+\ln x) = e^{\ln\alpha\frac{d}{d\ln x}}g(\ln x)$$

Then apply $\frac{d}{d\ln x}=\frac{dx}{d\ln x}\frac{d}{dx}=x\frac{d}{dx}$.

I guess there are some restrictions though, especially $x\neq 0$ since the Logarithm is not defined then ($\alpha\neq0$ is caught by $e^{\ln\alpha}=\alpha$).

14

More generally, there are the special linear conformal transformations SL(2,R) associated with the differential operators

$S_{-1}f(z)=\exp\left(a\frac d{dz}\right)f(z)=f(z+a)$

$S_{0}f(z)=\exp\left(bz\frac d{dz}\right)f(z)=f(e^b z)$

$S_{1}f(z)=\exp\left(cz^{2}\frac d{dz}\right)f(z)=f\left(\frac z{1-cz}\right)$

The $z^{m+1}\frac d{dz}$ (m=-1,0,1) are a representation of a subgroup of the infinite Witt Lie algebra associated with the Virasoro algebra, and their exponential maps can be used to construct Möbius, or linear fractional, transformations.

For more info (combinatorics, generalizations), see my notes "Mathemagical Forests" (pages 13-15) at my little "arxiv".

Also refer to this question at Physics Forum.

(Update) Another way to look at the the scaling operator is

$S_{0}f(z)= exp[(e^t-1):zd/dz:]f(z)=exp[t\phi_{.}(:zd/dz:)]f(z)=exp(tzd/dz)f(z)$

where $(:zd/dz:)^n=z^n(d/dz)^n$ and $(\phi_{.}(x))^n=\phi_{n}(x)$ is the n’th Bell/Touchard/exponential polynomial with the exponential generating function $exp[(e^t-1)x]=exp[t\phi_{.}(x)]$.

Edit 2/2014: Also more simply, $exp[(a-1):zd/dz:]f(z)=f(a·z)$. And, the next logical extension is to treat $a$ as an umbral variable, i.e., $a^n=a_n$, as Blissard did.

Edit 6/2014: An equivalent op, when acting on fcts. analytic at the origin, is $exp(a:xD_{x=0}:)$.

Applying the last two ops. with $a$ an umbral variable to $exp(x)$ gives the Euler or binomial transformation for exp. generating fcts., which can then be related to the Euler transform for ordinary generating functions through the Borel-Laplace transform. Then evaluating at $x=1$ gives the Euler summation for a series. To me, the differential ops. make these relations transparent.

Edit July 20, 2021:

In 1852 Charles Graves (brother of John Graves, the inventor of octonions in 1843) published "On a generalization of the symbolic statement of Taylor's theorem" in the Proc. of the Royal Irish Academy, presenting $e^{g(x)D} \; x = f^{(-1)}(1+f(x))$ where $g(x) = 1/f'(x)$, giving the examples for $g(x) = x^n$ for $n \geq 0$.

Tom Copeland
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  • thanks, interesting point. The last identity can be seen from $z^2\frac d{dz}=-\frac d{d\frac1z}$, so there's an even more general expression for $m\ge1$ using $\frac d{dz^{-m}} = -\frac1m z^{-(m+1)}\frac d{dz}$ – Tobias Kienzler Apr 01 '12 at 09:18
  • actually, this way around, all $m\in\mathbb C\backslash{0}$ are acceptable – Tobias Kienzler Apr 01 '12 at 09:35
  • @Tobias,thanks for adding the Wiki links to my note on the Witt and Virasoro algebras. See my MF notes for general m, and the Addendum as well as http://oeis.org/A094638. Wolfdieter Lang has also explored the Witt algebra (http://www.cs.uwaterloo.ca/journals/JIS/VOL12/Lang/lang.pdf). – Tom Copeland Apr 02 '12 at 06:42
  • normal ordering? this is getting related to QFT more than I expected... – Tobias Kienzler Apr 03 '12 at 11:55
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    See also https://mathoverflow.net/questions/117287/motivation-of-virasoro-algebra/150935#150935 and https://mathoverflow.net/questions/145555/why-is-there-a-connection-between-enumerative-geometry-and-nonlinear-waves/181534#181534 – Tom Copeland Jan 15 '21 at 17:05
  • Great, thanks for the links! – Tobias Kienzler Jan 22 '21 at 17:37
  • See also refs for https://mathoverflow.net/questions/172899/differential-operator-simplification/172900#172900 – Tom Copeland Jan 02 '22 at 21:14