I know that the answer to this question is negative, since proving the opposite is an exercise in Terrance Tao's Measure Theory book.
However, it doesn't make sense to me. In another part of the same exercise, we show that the product $\sigma$-algebra of two atomic algebras, is again an atomic algebra. As I understand, the atoms of the product algebra are the products of the atoms of the given atomic algebras.
But then, if $(X,P(X))$ and $(Y,P(Y))$ are two discrete measurable spaces, then the discrete $\sigma$-algebra on $X\times Y$ is $P(X\times Y)$, and the atomic algebra generated by the products of the singletons of $X$ and those of $Y$, $$P(X)\times P(Y) = \left\{\bigcup_{(x,y)\in J}(x,y):J\subset (X\times Y) \right\}=P(X\times Y), $$ as well.
What am I missing?