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In trying to write a nice proof of the derivatives of $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$, I encountered a serious problem, namely that I have never seen a proper definition of the notion of arc length. Based on visual intuition (for whatever that means), I tried to argue as follows:

Consider the following diagram:

enter image description here

The chord $AC$ is shorter than the red arc which is again (by visual intuition) shorter than the path $ABC$. This means that $$2s<arc<2d$$ Note that $|OD|=\sqrt{1-s^2}$ by the Pythagorean theorem. Now, since $\Delta ABD$ and $\Delta OAD$ are similar, we see that $$\frac sd=\frac{\sqrt{1-s^2}}1$$ so dividing the chord length $2s$ by $2s,arc$ and $2d$ considering inequalities from before we then have $$1>\frac{2s}{arc}>\frac{2s}{2d}=\sqrt{1-s^2}$$ and it follows that $$\frac{2s}{arc}=\frac{chord}{arc}\longrightarrow 1\quad\text{when}\quad chord,arc\longrightarrow 0$$

Problem: Since the inequality $arc<2d$ was based solely on intuition, I could just as well have claimed that $\frac{chord}{arc}\longrightarrow 1$ by intuition in the first place anyway. Perhaps my intution about the inequality is stronger than my intuition about the limit, but that does not make it more rigorous ...

Question: How can we define the notion of arc length and based on that show rigorously that $arc<2d$?

String
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    I am aware of other questions dealing with related issues, but they seem not to be adressing the proposed problem directly. – String Feb 04 '15 at 10:13
  • The first question is, of course, how did you define $\sin x$ and $\cos x$? It seems to be through geometry, but it may be different... – Martigan Feb 04 '15 at 10:15
  • @Martigan: Thank you for asking that. Definitions of $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$ are irrelevant to the arc length definition and proof of the chord/arc tends to 1 part. But when I proceed from that proving the derivatives, I define $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$ as coordinates of the point on the unit circle corresponding to $x$ radians. So through geometry, true. – String Feb 04 '15 at 10:21
  • The reason I was asking was that the initial statement of yours was: "I am trying to write a nice proof of the derivative of $\sin x$ and $\cos x$". The question of the cord and the arc is still open. – Martigan Feb 04 '15 at 10:24
  • @Martigan: OK, that was because I gave some background context to my question, but the background is not the point I am asking about. Perhaps some would define arc length through means for $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$ and then we would need to agree on a definition of them. But this need not be the case, I think. – String Feb 04 '15 at 10:26
  • @String good luck, just a warning, the derivatives of sin(x) and cos(x), differ for x measured in degrees , radians or other circular measure , please pay attention to this – Willemien Feb 04 '15 at 11:22
  • @Willemien: I am fully aware of that! Still, my question was never really about defining and understanding trigonometric functions. – String Feb 04 '15 at 11:30
  • For this reason, I think the derivations of the derivatives of the trig functions based on areas is more convincing. – GEdgar Feb 04 '15 at 15:23
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    @GEdgar: Do you mean by assuming the formula $$circle_area=\frac12\cdot radius\cdot perimeter$$ because the proofs of this formula all use the idea $\frac{chord}{arc}\rightarrow1$ to the best of my knowledge, so you cannot avoid the problem. Unless you know a different approach ... – String Feb 05 '15 at 09:39
  • You draw a picture and compare 3 areas. No chord involved. – GEdgar Feb 05 '15 at 13:12
  • @GEdgar: Thank you for responding! Since $\sin(x),\cos(x)$ and $x$ are lengths, namely a half-chord, a part of a radius and an arc respectively, somehow the argument must be transformed into considering lengths at some point if we are to find derivatives of trig functions. Would you consider explaining/illustrating which picture you had in mind in an answer so it can be discussed? I hope you can bear with me, that I am not fully convinced! – String Feb 05 '15 at 14:12

6 Answers6

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One way to define the arc length of a curve $\gamma:[a,b]\to\mathbb R^2$ is by considering partitions of $[a,b]$, as in Riemann integration (read this Wikipedia article first): if $P(x,t)$ is a tagged partition of $[a,b]$, then $L_\gamma(P)$, the length of $\gamma$ with respect to the partition $P$, is $\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}|\gamma(t_i)-\gamma(t_{i-1})|$.

Definition: If $\underset{P}{\lim \sup} L_\gamma(P)$ exists, then $L_\gamma = \underset{P}{\lim \sup} L_\gamma(P)$ is the length of the curve.

Now consider the portion of the red arc between the point $A$ and the line $BD$. Using the above definition, we can see that the length of this arc lies between $AD$ and $AB$: if $\gamma(t_{i-1})$ and $\gamma(t_i)$ are points on the curve, we can project them perpendicular to $AD$ onto the points $r_{i-1}$ and $r_i$ on $AD$, and $s_{i-1}$ and $s_i$ on $AB$. And then we have $|r_i-r_{i-1}| < |\gamma(t_i)-\gamma(t_{i-1})| < |s_i-s_{i-1}|$, by simple geometry.

Therefore $L_{AD}(P) < L_\gamma(P) < L_{AB}(P)$ (taking some liberties with the notation). And in the limit we get:

$$\underset{P}{\lim \sup}L_{AD} \le \underset{P}{\lim \sup}L_\gamma(P) \le \underset{P}{\lim \sup}L_{AB}$$

In other words: $$AD \le L_\gamma\le AB$$

To show strict inequality would not be too difficult $-$ for instance, if we are more than halfway to the line $BD$, then there is a constant $\mu < 1$ such that $|\gamma(t_i)-\gamma(t_{i-1})| < \mu|s_i-s_{i-1}|$. This would give $L_\gamma(P) < \frac12(1+\mu)L_{AB}(P)$, so $L_\gamma \le \frac12(1+\mu)AB$.

TonyK
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    I really like this $\lim\sup$-approach! This is very much what I had in mind. Since all we have defined beforehand is the length of a straight line segment, there seems to be no other way to talk about lengths than to consider approximations by line segments. But this way of doing it seems very general and avoids unnecessary machinery from differential geometry. – String Feb 04 '15 at 21:05
  • For the current purpose, I do not need strict inequalities anyway. I am not very familiar with axiomatic systems, but we must be in some setting of Euclidean geometry assuming the Pythagorean theorem for triangles and the principle that a straight line segment defines the shortest path between two points. Your suggested definition seems to me to be the closest I can get to making this argument sound without simply assuming $\frac{chord}{arc}\rightarrow 1$ as an axiom - though your definition is still slightly suggestive of that idea ... – String Feb 05 '15 at 09:27
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Given an injective, piecewise $C^1$ parameterization $r(t)$, $t \in [a, b]$ of a curve $\gamma$, we can define the arc length element to be $$ds := \left\vert r'(t)\right\vert \,dt,$$ and correspondingly the (arc) length of $\gamma$ to be $$L(\gamma) = \int_{\gamma} ds = \int_a^b \left\vert r'(t)\right\vert \,dt.$$

Critically, the arc length element $ds$ and the length $L(\gamma)$ does not depend of the choice of parameterization $r(t)$. Indeed, we can write any other such parameterization of $\gamma$ as $r(t(\tau))$ for some monotonic function $t(\tau)$, and independence of parameterization follows immediately from applying the chain rule to the change of variable $t \mapsto \tau$.

Note that we can parameterize the graph of a function $f(x)$, $x \in [a, b]$, by the curve $r(t) = \langle t, f(t)\rangle$, $t \in [a, b]$, in which case the arc length element is $\left\vert r'(t)\right\vert = \left\vert\langle1, f'(t)\rangle\right\vert = \sqrt{1 + f'(t)^2}$, which leads immediately to the formula given in mvw's answer for the arc length of such a curve.

Travis Willse
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  • What does $<.,.>$ mean here? – mvw Feb 04 '15 at 11:54
  • @mvw: I think it is a vector. – String Feb 04 '15 at 11:55
  • Thank you! I like the part about re-parametrizations too. I will have to think about the inequalities a bit more - I have not understood the nice connection you refer to yet, so hopefully I soon will! – String Feb 04 '15 at 11:59
  • @mvw String is right, it's just a notation for vector. – Travis Willse Feb 04 '15 at 12:02
  • @String You're welcome. This definition is useful because it is practical, the downside is that it is not manifestly parameterization-independent, so one really has to check this (but again, this is just the usual chain rule). – Travis Willse Feb 04 '15 at 12:03
  • @Travis: It seems to me, that using this definition I can only succeed in transforming the problem of $arc<2d$ into $x<\tan(x)$, which, since I have defined trigonometric functions geometrically, is essentially the same geometrical problem. Instead, I have considered looking at the Riemann sums for the arc length, which is essentially a sum of tangent segments, showing geometrically that each segment is shorter than a given segment of $2d$ so that all Riemann sums are bounded by $2d$. – String Feb 04 '15 at 12:17
  • One must be careful estimating with Riemann sums, as these can give over- or underestimates depending on the choices one makes. If you're happy to use calculus, note that $\frac{d}{dx}(\tan x - x) = \sec^2 x - 1 = \tan^2 x$, which is positive on $(0, \frac{\pi}{2})$. Thus, since $\left.(\tan x - x)\right\vert_{x = 0} = 0$, we have $\tan x - x > 0$, and hence $\tan x > x$, on that interval. – Travis Willse Feb 04 '15 at 12:24
  • @Travis: OK, thanks again. The main problem is that although I do not mind using calculus, I want to avoid using derivatives of trigonometric functions since $arc<2d$ is a part of proving what those derivatives are. After thinking about it, my Riemann-approach already pre-supposed that $\frac{chord}{arc}\longrightarrow 1$ which makes the whole argument circular. So perhaps still another definition of length is needed in order to prove this without circular argumentation? – String Feb 04 '15 at 12:31
  • Also I think, that this differential definition of curve length mimics the idea that chords on a curve tends to the corresponding arc lengths of the curve when they both tend to zero (and their number tends to infinity). So maybe $\frac{chord}{arc}\longrightarrow 1$ is actually the motivation and intuition behind this definition?! – String Feb 04 '15 at 12:49
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another method to deduce derivatives of trig functions
(Not an answer to the original question, since it does not involve arc length. But the original question shows that the "arc length" approach may not be so intuitively obvious. Thus, my preference for an "area" method.) (Found in many textbooks, and, for example, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proofs_of_trigonometric_identities#Inequalities).

We consider angle $\theta > 0$, but close to zero. Similar diagrams may be made for $\theta<0$. Let angle $\theta$ be given. Draw a unit circle with center $O$. Let radii $OD$ and $OA$ of that circle be such that $\angle AOD = \theta$.

diagram

Let point $B$ be on segment $OD$ so that $AB$ is perpendicular to $OD$. Let $C$ be on ray $OA$ such that $DC$ is perpendicular to $OD$. Thus $DC$ is tangent to the circle. According to trigonometry, $|OB| = \cos \theta$, $|AB| = \sin \theta$, $|CD| = \tan \theta$.

Now, when $\theta \to 0+$, point $B$ approaches point $D$, so we get a cosine limit $$ \lim_{\theta\to 0+}\cos\theta = 1 $$

sector

Now consider the sector of the circle between the two radii $OA$ and $OD$. This sector is the fraction $\theta/(2\pi)$ of the whole circle. The whole circle has area $\pi$, so this sector has area $\pi \cdot \theta/(2\pi) = \theta/2$.
The triangle $OAD$ has area $|OD|\cdot|BA|/2 = (\sin\theta) / 2$. This triangle is contained in the sector, so the area of the triangle is less than the area of the sector. So we get inequality $$ \sin\theta < \theta $$

The triangle $ODC$ has area $|OD|\cdot|CD|/2 = (\tan \theta) / 2$. This triangle contains the sector, so we get inequality $$ \theta < \tan \theta = \frac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta} $$

Now, from these inequalities, we get $$ \cos\theta < \frac{\sin\theta}{\theta} < 1 $$ Using the cosine limit above, we have a sine limit: $$ \lim_{\theta \to 0+}\frac{\sin\theta}{\theta} = 1 $$

Now we need another cosine limit. $$ \frac{1-\cos\theta}{\theta^2} = \frac{1-\cos^2\theta}{\theta^2(1+\cos\theta)} =\frac{\sin^2\theta}{\theta^2(1+\cos\theta))} = \frac{\sin\theta}{\theta} \cdot \frac{\sin\theta}{\theta}\cdot \frac{1}{1+\cos\theta} \to \frac{1}{2} $$ as $\theta \to 0$.

From these we can prove the formulas for the derivatives of the trig functions.

GEdgar
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    How is the anglular measure of $\theta$ defined? Perhaps it is defined as two times the area of the sector defining the angle, which would make sense and render the proof valid. But if you define it in terms of arc lengths we are still in trouble, since then the part saying "... so this sector has area $\pi\cdot \theta/(2\pi)=\theta/2$ ..." is merely hiding the original problem. I am used to the second definition of radians as arc length, so this may be the exact point I have been missing regarding area based proofs! – String Feb 05 '15 at 16:04
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The differential arclength is $ds^2 = dx^2 + dy^2$. You can use this with the curve $y = y(x)$ of the arc and integration.

For a curve $y(x)$ over $x \in [x_1, x_2]$ the arc length of that curve is $$ s = \int\limits_{x_1}^{x_2} \sqrt{1+(y')^2}\,dx \quad (*) $$ Example The curve for a circle of radius $r$ and center at the origin is $$ y = \sqrt{r^2 - x^2} \quad y' = -\frac{x}{\sqrt{r^2 - x^2}} $$ so for the quarter circle in the first quadrant we have $$ s = \int\limits_0^r \frac{dx}{\sqrt{1-\left(\frac{x}{r}\right)^2}} = \left[r \arcsin\left(\frac{x}{r}\right)\right]_0^r = r \arcsin\left(1\right) = r\frac{\pi}{2} $$ which seems ok, a quarter of $2\pi r$.

mvw
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This is not actually an answer, but some details that I left out in the original post to avoid it being too lengthy:


Once I have sorted out the problem of defining arc lengths and proven that $\frac{chord}{arc}\longrightarrow 1$ as $chord,arc$ tends to zero, my proof of the derivatives of $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$ goes as follows:

enter image description here

For some fixed $x_0\in\mathbb R$ and variable $h\in\mathbb R$ define $$\vec v_0=\begin{pmatrix}\cos(x_0)\\\sin(x_0)\end{pmatrix}\quad\text{and}\quad\vec v=\begin{pmatrix}\cos(x_0+h)\\\sin(x_0+h)\end{pmatrix}$$ Then define the chord vector $\overrightarrow{\Delta v}=\vec v-\vec v_0$ and consider the following: $$\begin{pmatrix}\frac{\cos(x_0+h)-\cos(x_0)}h\\\frac{\sin(x_0+h)-\sin(x_0)}h\end{pmatrix}=\frac 1h\cdot\overrightarrow{\Delta v}=\underbrace{\frac{|\overrightarrow{\Delta v}|}{h}}_{chord/arc}\cdot\overbrace{\frac 1{|\overrightarrow{\Delta v}|}\cdot\overrightarrow{\Delta v}}^{\text{secant unit vector}}$$ Now, the first fraction is essentially $\frac{chord}{arc}$ tending to $1$ as $arc=h$ tends to zero. The rest is a secant unit vector through the endpoints of $\vec v$ and $\vec v_0$ respectively, so as $h$ tends to zero this tends to the tangent unit vector $$\widehat{\vec v_0}=\begin{pmatrix}-\sin(x_0)\\\cos(x_0)\end{pmatrix}$$ So we have shown that $$\begin{pmatrix}\frac{\cos(x_0+h)-\cos(x_0)}h\\\frac{\sin(x_0+h)-\sin(x_0)}h\end{pmatrix}\longrightarrow\begin{pmatrix}-\sin(x_0)\\\cos(x_0)\end{pmatrix}$$ as $h$ tends to zero. Thus $\cos'(x_0)=-\sin(x_0)$ and $\sin'(x_0)=\cos(x_0)$.

String
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I think there are many ways to define an arc length (especially of a circle)

For a circle the arclength is:

  • The length of the perimeter of the inscribed regular polygon as the number of vertices grows to $ \infty$ (compare s)

  • The length of the perimeter of the circumscribed regular polygon as the number of vertices grows to $\infty$ (compare d)

  • How about taking half of the sums above?

Willemien
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    Thanks for your suggestions! The main problem is, that in defining it this way, you are already assuming that $\frac{chord}{arc}\longrightarrow 1$ or something similar to that. But perhaps this is the only way to do it - to take that as an axiom. – String Feb 04 '15 at 14:09
  • with the third one you definitly prove the length is between $ \sin(x)$ and $ \tan(x) $. I cannot help thet limit is 1 :) – Willemien Feb 04 '15 at 16:00