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Suppose $f\in L^2([0,1],\lambda)$. Are there assumptions on the smoothness of $f$ which translate into the particular behavior of Frourier coefficients. Namely, I have arbitrary complete orthonormal basis $(\varphi_j)_{j=1}^\infty$ (not necessary trigonometric) and so $$f = \sum_{j=1}^\infty\langle \varphi_j,f\rangle \varphi_j$$

I would like to asses the order of $$\left\|\sum_{j=m}^\infty \langle \varphi_j,f\rangle \varphi_j\right\|^2 = \sum_{j=m}^\infty|\langle \varphi_j,f\rangle|^2$$

Is it possible to assume that $f$ is smooth in some sense e.g. Holder, or Sobolev with some exponent, which would give me, for instance, $$\sum_{j=m}^\infty|\langle \varphi_j,f\rangle|^2 = O(m^{-\gamma})$$

Lionville
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  • see http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/10848/does-rapid-decay-of-fourier-coefficients-imply-smoothness (possible duplicate) – Thomas Jan 15 '15 at 11:14
  • Thomas, I saw this question. What I would like to know is 1. Does this hold for any orthonormal basis (e.g. Legendre polynomials, etc.), 2. What is the formal argument for this (a reference would be nice). – Lionville Jan 15 '15 at 11:20
  • What kind of smoothness assumption on $f$ translates into the fact that sequence of Fourier coefficients is decreasing.
  • – Lionville Jan 15 '15 at 11:31