The notion "holomorph" was introduced in Maria S. Voloshina's Ph.D. thesis On the Holomorph of a Discrete Group (available at https://arxiv.org/abs/math/0302120). It is defined as follows:
Let $G$ be a group and let $\mathrm{Aut}(G)$ be the automorphism group of $G$. The holomorph of $\mathrm{Hol}(G)$, is defined as follows:
- As a set, $\mathrm{Hol}(G)=\mathrm{Aut}(G)\times G$;
- For each $x,y\in G$ and $f,g\in\mathrm{Aut}(G)$, the multiplication on $\mathrm{Hol}(G)$ is defined by $$(f,x)\cdot(g,y)=(fg, g^{-1}(x)y)\text{.}$$
The author points out that there is a split exact sequence $$1\to G\to\mathrm{Hol}(G)\stackrel{\leftarrow}{\rightarrow}\mathrm{Aut}(G)\to1\text{.}$$
What I am confused about is, if there is such a split exact sequence, doesn't the splitting lemma imply that $\mathrm{Hol}(G)$ is isomorphic to $G\times\mathrm{Aut}(G)$?