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I've tried solving the following problem but I get stuck at the very end...

$f(z)$ is defined as $$f(z)=\frac{1}{(z-\alpha)^2(z-1)}$$ with $\alpha \in \mathbb{C}$ and $\operatorname{Im}(\alpha) > 0$.

Calculate $$P.V. \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{\operatorname d x}{(x-\alpha)^2(x-1)} = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{\operatorname d x}{(x-\alpha)^2(x-1)}$$

I'm using the following contour. I've calculated the residues and proven that $\int_{\Gamma_1}f(z) \operatorname d z \to 0$.

contour

Here are the residues: $$\operatorname{res}(f, 1) = \frac{1}{(1-\alpha)^2} \qquad \operatorname{res}(f, \alpha) = \frac{-1}{1-\alpha)^2}$$

But then there is a little problem. The solutions manual states ...using the formula of Plemelj $P.V. \int_\Gamma f(z) \operatorname d z = \frac{-i\pi}{(1-\alpha)^2}$.

Whereas I would state according to the residue theorem: $$P.V. \int_\Gamma f(z) \operatorname d z = 2\pi i \left(\frac{1}{(1-\alpha)^2}+\frac{-1}{(1-\alpha)^2}\right) = 0 $$

I guess I can't use the residue theorem since a pole is located on the contour itself, but I can't seem to find any information on that formula of Plemelj...

dietervdf
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    Right, since you have a pole on the contour, the residue theorem isn't directly applicable. As a shorthand, a simple pole on the contour lies half inside and half outside the contour, so only half its residue is counted. The fraction is different if the contour has a corner at the simple pole, it depends on the angle. – Daniel Fischer Dec 20 '14 at 21:28
  • @DanielFischer Do you know of a formal theorem which handles poles on a contour like you stated? – dietervdf Dec 23 '14 at 11:47
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    Not really. Usually, the examples of applications of the residue theorem include some where you have a simple pole on $\mathbb{R}$ (typically after replacing $\sin x$ or $\cos x$ with $e^{ix}$), and that is treated by introducing a circular arc to avoid the pole as Ron explained. My comment above is just a short summary of the result, if the contour is smooth at the pole, it's as if half of the pole lies inside the contour and half outside. If the contour has a corner at the pole, with (inner) angle $\alpha$, the fraction is $\frac{\alpha}{2\pi}$, so you get $\alpha i$ times the residue of the – Daniel Fischer Dec 23 '14 at 12:00
  • pole instead of $2\pi i$ times as for singularities properly enclosed by the contour. Just a memory aid so you don't have to actually make the detour and compute the limit every time. – Daniel Fischer Dec 23 '14 at 12:00
  • @DanielFischer Do you have a reference for this comment: "a simple pole on the contour lies half inside and half outside the contour, so only half its residue is counted". I am solving a PV integral where the contour crosses a simple pole. My solution is off by half the residue at the pole and I don't know why. – Aaron Hendrickson Apr 19 '18 at 14:33
  • @AaronHendrickson No, that's just an informal shorthand intended to help remembering the result. – Daniel Fischer Apr 19 '18 at 14:41

3 Answers3

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To compute the principal value, use the usual semicircular contour $C$ in the upper half plane of radius $R$, but with a small, semicircular detour of radius $\epsilon$ into the upper half plane about the pole at $z=1$. What we get is

$$\oint_C \frac{dz}{(z-\alpha)^2 (z-1)} = \int_{-R}^{1-\epsilon} \frac{dx}{(x-\alpha)^2 (x-1)} + i \epsilon \int_{\pi}^0 d\phi \, \frac{e^{i \phi}}{(1+\epsilon e^{i \phi}-\alpha)^2 \epsilon e^{i \phi}} \\ +\int_{1+\epsilon}^R \frac{dx}{(x-\alpha)^2 (x-1)} + i R \int_0^{\pi} d\theta \frac{e^{i \theta}}{(R e^{i \theta}-\alpha)^2 (R e^{i \theta}-1)}$$

Take the limits as $R \to \infty$ and $\epsilon \to 0$. The fourth integral vanishes as $\pi/R^2$, but the second integral remains finite. Thus,

$$\oint_C \frac{dz}{(z-\alpha)^2 (z-1)} = PV \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{dx}{(x-\alpha)^2 (x-1)} - i \frac{\pi}{(1-\alpha)^2} $$

The contour integral is also equal to $i 2 \pi$ times the residue at the double pole $z=\alpha$, which by definition is inside $C$. Equating this to the RHS of the above equation, we may now determine our principal value:

$$PV \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{dx}{(x-\alpha)^2 (x-1)} = i \frac{\pi}{(1-\alpha)^2} - i 2 \pi \frac1{(\alpha-1)^2} = -i \frac{\pi}{(\alpha-1)^2}$$

Ron Gordon
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  • Okay, I guess one always has to avoid a pole on the contour by picking the right contour? Or is there a theorem which handles the comment of Daniel Fischer? – dietervdf Dec 23 '14 at 09:22
  • @dietervdf: don't know about a formal theorem, but the procedure to treat poles on contours is what I outlined in my solution. It covers poles on straight lines, at corners, or wherever in the path of integration. – Ron Gordon Dec 23 '14 at 11:28
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$\newcommand{\angles}[1]{\left\langle\, #1 \,\right\rangle} \newcommand{\braces}[1]{\left\lbrace\, #1 \,\right\rbrace} \newcommand{\bracks}[1]{\left\lbrack\, #1 \,\right\rbrack} \newcommand{\ceil}[1]{\,\left\lceil\, #1 \,\right\rceil\,} \newcommand{\dd}{{\rm d}} \newcommand{\ds}[1]{\displaystyle{#1}} \newcommand{\dsc}[1]{\displaystyle{\color{red}{#1}}} \newcommand{\expo}[1]{\,{\rm e}^{#1}\,} \newcommand{\fermi}{\,{\rm f}} \newcommand{\floor}[1]{\,\left\lfloor #1 \right\rfloor\,} \newcommand{\half}{{1 \over 2}} \newcommand{\ic}{{\rm i}} \newcommand{\iff}{\Longleftrightarrow} \newcommand{\imp}{\Longrightarrow} \newcommand{\Li}[1]{\,{\rm Li}_{#1}} \newcommand{\norm}[1]{\left\vert\left\vert\, #1\,\right\vert\right\vert} \newcommand{\pars}[1]{\left(\, #1 \,\right)} \newcommand{\partiald}[3][]{\frac{\partial^{#1} #2}{\partial #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\pp}{{\cal P}} \newcommand{\root}[2][]{\,\sqrt[#1]{\vphantom{\large A}\,#2\,}\,} \newcommand{\sech}{\,{\rm sech}} \newcommand{\sgn}{\,{\rm sgn}} \newcommand{\totald}[3][]{\frac{{\rm d}^{#1} #2}{{\rm d} #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\ul}[1]{\underline{#1}} \newcommand{\verts}[1]{\left\vert\, #1 \,\right\vert}$ $\ds{\alpha \in {\mathbb C}\,,\quad\Im\pars{\alpha} > 0}$ \begin{align}&\bbox[#ffd,5px]{% \,{\rm P.V.}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\dd x \over \pars{x -\alpha}^{2}\pars{x - 1}}} \\[5mm] = &\ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} {1 \over \pars{x -\alpha}^{2}}\bracks{% {1 \over x - 1 - \ic 0^{+}} -\ic\pi\,\delta\pars{x - 1}}\,\dd x \\[5mm]&=\underbrace{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} {\dd x \over \pars{x -\alpha}^{2}\pars{x - 1 - \ic 0^{+}}}} _{\ds{=\ \dsc{0}}}\ -\ \ic\pi\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\delta\pars{x - 1} \over \pars{x -\alpha}^{2}}\,\dd x \\[5mm] = &\ \bbox[10px,border:1px groove navy]{-\,{\ic\pi \over \pars{1 - \alpha}^{2}}} \\ & \end{align}


The first integral vanishes out because their poles $\ds{\pars{~\alpha\ \mbox{and}\ 1 + \ic 0^{+}~}}$ are in the upper complex plane: It means we can evaluate the integral by 'closing' a contour in the lower complex plane where the integral doesn't have any pole.
Felix Marin
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1

Sorry for not using contour integrals but why not simply calculate the integral on the real axis and apply the definition of Cauchy's principal value (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy_principal_value) as the symmetric limit about the point $z=1$?

Here we go

Let $0<\epsilon<<1$ and decompose the integral $i$ into two parts $i_1$ and $i_2$ excluding the point $z=1$:

$$i_1(\epsilon) = \int_{-\infty}^{1-\epsilon}\frac{1}{(z-\alpha)^2(z-1)}\,dz $$

$$i_2(\epsilon) = \int_{1+\epsilon}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(z-\alpha)^2(z-1)}\,dz $$

Then with

$$i(\epsilon) = i_1(\epsilon)+i_2(\epsilon)$$

the principal value of the integral is given by

$$i = P.V.\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(z-\alpha)^2(z-1)}\,dz =\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \, i(\epsilon )$$

For $\Im(a)>0$ he integrals are elementary with the results

$$i_1=\frac{(\alpha +\epsilon -1) \log (\epsilon )-(\alpha +\epsilon -1) \log (\alpha +\epsilon -1)+\alpha -1}{(\alpha -1)^2 (\alpha +\epsilon -1)}$$

$$i_2=\frac{(-\alpha +\epsilon +1) \log (\epsilon )+(\alpha -\epsilon -1) \log (-\alpha +\epsilon +1)-\alpha +1}{(\alpha -1)^2 (\alpha -\epsilon -1)}$$

so that we get, after some simplifications

$$i = \lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \, i(\epsilon ) = \frac{\log (1-\alpha)-\log (-1+\alpha )}{(\alpha -1)^2}$$

But now

$$\log(-1+\alpha) = \log((-1)(1-\alpha)) = \log(-1) +\log(1-\alpha)$$

so that

$$i=\frac{-\log(-1)}{(\alpha-1)^2}=\frac{- i \pi}{(\alpha-1)^2}\tag{*}$$

For a check I have let Mathematica calculate the original integral with PrincipalValue->True and found $(*)$.

Discussion

  1. It was already mentioned (by Daniel Fisher) that we obtain the same result when we split the pole on the real axis into two poles with half the residue each, one shifted by an amount $\epsilon>0$ above and the other one by an amount $\epsilon$ below the real axis. As there are now no poles on the real axis we can complete the contour on the real axis and obtain

$$\int_{-\infty }^{\infty } \frac{\frac{1}{2 (z-i \epsilon -1)}+\frac{1}{2 (z+i \epsilon -1)}}{(z-\alpha)^2} \, dz \\= \int_{-\infty }^{\infty } \frac{z-1}{(z-1)^2+\epsilon^2}\frac{1}{(z-\alpha)^2} \, dz\\=\frac{-i \pi }{(\alpha+i \epsilon -1)^2}\text{sign}(\Im(\alpha))\to \frac{-i \pi }{(\alpha -1)^2}\text{sign}(\Im(\alpha))$$

which generalizes $(*)$ to $\Im(\alpha)<0$.

  1. If we would take an asymmetric limit, say $i= \lim_{\epsilon \to 0} \, (i_1(\epsilon )+i_2(\gamma\epsilon))$ we would obtain

$$i_{asym}= -\frac{\log (\gamma )+i \pi }{(\alpha -1)^2}$$

we also obtain a finite result but this depends on an arbitrary parameter $\gamma$.