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There's this theorem in Spivak's book of Calculus:

Theorem 7

Suppose that $f$ is continuous at $a$, and that $f'(x)$ exists for all $x$ in some interval containing $a$, except perhaps for $x=a$. Suppose, moreover, that $\lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$ exists. Then $f'(a)$ also exists, and $$f'(a) = \lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$$

Proof

By definition, $$f'(a) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}$$ For sufficiently small $h>0$ the function $f$ will be continuous on $[a,a+h]$ and differentiable on $(a,a+h)$ (a similar assertion holds for sufficiently small $h<0$). By the Mean Value Theorem there is a number $\alpha_h$ in $(a,a+h)$ such that $$\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h} = f'(\alpha_h)$$ Now $\alpha_h$ approaches $a$ as $h$ approaches $0$, because $\alpha_h$ is in $(a,a+h)$; since $\lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$ exists, it follows that $$f'(a) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} f'(\alpha_h) = \lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$$ (It is a good idea to supply a rigorous $\epsilon$-$\delta$ argument for this final step, which we have treated somewhat informally.) $\blacksquare$

Following the recommendation of supplying the details I had the question of $\alpha_h$ being a choice function. This is because for every $h$ there is the possibility of having a lot of points $c$ such that $f'(c)=\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}$. Then we choose one of them to have a function $\alpha_h$. I'm not sure though because I'm always struggling with the axiom of choice that I cannot distinguish if it's needed or not. Also maybe in this case what the author is saying is something different. Can you guys please help me?

senshin
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Daniela Diaz
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  • I'm not an expert on the matter (and so with any luck, I'll trigger Cunningham's Law), but you are using choice here, since you're making infinitely many arbitrary choices. I suspect you could use a weaker form (countable choice) or maybe even cleverly avoid it altogether, but of course that would be a different proof. – BaronVT Dec 04 '14 at 16:56
  • http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/625749/does-the-mean-value-theorem-implicitly-assume-the-axiom-of-choice – Asaf Karagila Dec 04 '14 at 17:11
  • @AsafKaragila But this is not what is being asked here. Here Spivak is claiming something about the limit of a composite function, whose existence definitely requires some choice-like argument. – Andrés E. Caicedo Dec 04 '14 at 17:38

3 Answers3

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Yes, this is an interesting technical point that is often overlooked. As written, Spivak is postulating the existence of the function that to each (positive, sufficiently small) $h$ assigns the value $\alpha_h$. On the face of it, this is an application of the axiom of choice, because the set of numbers $\tau$ between $a$ and $a+h$ such that $\displaystyle \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}h=f'(\tau)$ does not need to be a singleton, or open, or closed, or any reasonably shaped set, so the problem of assigning to each such $h$ a specific such number $\tau$ requires infinitely many choices in what does not appear to be a straightforward definable manner.

One technical remark is that, using techniques of descriptive set theory, we can eliminate this use of choice since for $\eta>0$ small enough, the relation $$\{(h,\tau):0<|h|<\eta\mbox{ and }\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}h=f'(\tau)\}$$ is Borel, and therefore admits what we call a co-analytic uniformization, provably in Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory without the axiom of choice. (This means that we can actually prove, without choice, the existence of a function $a_h$ as in Spivak's argument.)

That said, both this statement and its proof are definitely beyond the level of Spivak's textbook. Fortunately, in order to formalize what he does, we can proceed in a more elementary manner:

Let $L=\lim_{x\to a}f'(x)$, the limit whose existence is granted by assumption. For any $\epsilon>0$ there is a $\delta>0$ such that for any $\tau$, if $0\ne \tau$ and $|\tau|<\delta$, then $|f'(a+\tau)-L|<\epsilon$. It is enough to prove that $$ \left|\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}h - L\right|<\epsilon $$ for any $h$ with $0\ne h$ and $|h|<\delta$. Since $\epsilon$ is arbitrary, this indeed shows that $f'(a)$ exists and equals $L$.

Now, given such an $h$, we know that there is a $\rho$ in the open interval with endpoints $a$ and $a+h$ such that $\displaystyle \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}h=f'(\rho)$. There may in fact be many possible choices for $\rho$, but we do not need to choose any (that is, we do not need to assert the existence of the function $a_h$). Simply note that for any such $\rho$, we have $0<|\rho-a|<\delta$, and so indeed $$ \left|\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}h - L\right|<\epsilon, $$ as needed.

A similar issue appears in (advanced) analysis, in the theory of the derivative, when studying Neugebauer's theorem that characterizes when a function is a derivative in terms of properties of a companion function playing the role of $a_h$ above. Without appealing to the descriptive set theoretic result mentioned above, Neugebauer's theorem appears to need more choice than the standard fragment usually assumed in analysis (dependent choices). I have not found any texts dealing with Neugebauer's theorem that address (or even appear aware of) this technicality.

  • So the difference is that you only need there to be at least one $\rho$ for each $h$, but you don't need to prove that there is a function $\alpha_h$ that does that mapping for you? It makes sense, but now I can't see how the AoC would ever be necessary. Do you know any very simple example? – Wood Dec 04 '14 at 19:46
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    An example of a situation in analysis where we use the axiom of choice? To prove that continuity and sequential continuity are equivalent, for instance. A more interesting example is the fact that countable unions of countable sets are countable, that we use all the time in a variety of situations. – Andrés E. Caicedo Dec 04 '14 at 19:48
  • Thanks for the summary/analysis. – copper.hat Sep 22 '19 at 19:42
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The Mean Value Theorem is a consequence of Rolle's Theorem, which says that if $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $(a,b)$, and $f(a)=f(b)$, then there exists $c \in (a,b)$ such that $f'(c)=0$. This is proven by letting $c$ be a point where $f$ attains its global minimum or maximum on $(a,b)$; such a point must have $f'(c) = 0$.

To avoid having to make a choice here, you can specify $c$ uniquely as:

$$c = \sup\{x \in (a,b) | f \text{ attains its global minimum or maximum at } x\}$$

Then $f$ attains its global minimum or maximum at $c$, by continuity. (See [1] below for what to do if $c=b$.)

Armed with this version of Rolle's Theorem, you can use it to prove a similar non-choice version of the Mean Value Theorem. You can then use this theorem in your proof.


[1] It can happen that this supremum is equal to $b$, which we don't want. In this case:

  • if $f(b)$ is a global minimum but not a global maximum, let $c = \sup\{x \in (a,b) | f \text{ attains its global maximum at } x\}$;

  • if $f(b)$ is a global maximum but not a global minimum, let $c = \sup\{x \in (a,b) | f \text{ attains its global minimum at } x\}$;

  • if $f(b)$ is both a global minimum and a global maximum, then $f$ is consant, so we can choose $c=\frac12(a+b)$.

TonyK
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  • How do you assure that $c\in {x \in (a,b) | f \text{ attains its minimum or maximum at }$? – Daniela Diaz Dec 04 '14 at 19:01
  • Your last conclusion is wrong. Imagine a sine-like function with smaller and smaller oscillations as we approach $ a $ and $ b $. – Andrés E. Caicedo Dec 04 '14 at 19:02
  • It is even worse. The function $g$ given by $g(x)=\sin(1/x)$ if $x\ne0$ and $g(0)=0$ is a derivative, say $f'=g$. Here you can arrange $c=0$ while $f(c)$ is neither a minimum nor a maximum. – Andrés E. Caicedo Dec 04 '14 at 19:16
  • @Andres: My post was unclear $-$ all my minima and maxima are supposed to be global minima and maxima (over $(a,b)$). Does the edited version fix the problems? – TonyK Dec 04 '14 at 19:22
  • Hehe. Yes, this seems to do it. – Andrés E. Caicedo Dec 04 '14 at 19:30
  • @DanielaDiaz: Can you re-post your question please? It looks to be half missing. – TonyK Dec 04 '14 at 19:37
  • @TonyK Yes, sorry. If you choose $c=sup(A)$ not always occurs that $c\in A$. In this case we need that $c\in A$ so that the definition makes sense. Then my question is how do you assure that $c\in A$ having $A={x\in (a,b)\mid \text{f attains its global minimum or maximum at x}}$. – Daniela Diaz Dec 04 '14 at 19:46
  • @DanielaDiaz:I addressed that issue in my footnote [1], I think. – TonyK Dec 04 '14 at 19:50
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I don't think $\alpha_h$ being a choice function has much to do with what the author is talking about. He is recommending the reader to try to prove that $$ \lim_{h\to0}f'(\alpha_h) = \lim_{x\to a}f'(x) $$ What the left side means is: $$ \lim_{h\to0}f'(\alpha_h) = c \iff \forall\epsilon,\exists\delta>0\mid|h|<\delta \Rightarrow|f'(\alpha_h)-c|<\epsilon \tag{1} $$ And the right side means: $$ \lim_{x\to a}f'(x) = c \iff \forall\epsilon,\exists\delta>0\mid|x-a|<\delta \Rightarrow|f'(x)-c|<\epsilon \tag{2} $$ You know that $(2)$ is true, so you have to prove that $(2)\Rightarrow (1)$.

First remember that $\alpha_h\in (a,a+h)$. So $0<\alpha_h-a<h$ and $|\alpha_h-a|<|h|$. Now just pick $x=\alpha_h$. You know that for any $\epsilon,h>0$, the following is true: $$ \exists\delta>0\mid|\alpha_h-a|<\delta\Rightarrow|f'(\alpha_h)-c|<\epsilon \tag{3} $$ You also know that $|h|<\delta\Rightarrow|\alpha_h-a|<\delta$. So it is also true that: $$ \exists\delta>0\mid|h|<\delta\Rightarrow|\alpha_h-a|\Rightarrow|f'(\alpha_h)-c|<\epsilon \tag{4} $$ Which shows that $(1)$ is true. Note that we arrived at the same limit $c$.

Wood
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    In doing all this the number $\alpha_h$ is a function that is dependent on the values of h. But how do you know that such a function exists? I know that MVT assures you that you can pick one $c$ such that $\alpha_h=c$, but this process is uncountably infinite because you need to pick one $c$ for every $h$ on the interval. My problem is that I don't know why, based on Assaf's comment above, the axiom of choice is not needed. – Daniela Diaz Dec 04 '14 at 17:48
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    If you accept the AoC, then I think my proof is ok. If you don't, then I'm not sure. Based on what Andres Caicedo said, I think it would still be correct, as long as you don't call $\alpha_h$ a function, but just state the existence of such a number for each $h$ (or change the notation to $\alpha$ or $\rho$). – Wood Dec 04 '14 at 20:01