There's this theorem in Spivak's book of Calculus:
Theorem 7
Suppose that $f$ is continuous at $a$, and that $f'(x)$ exists for all $x$ in some interval containing $a$, except perhaps for $x=a$. Suppose, moreover, that $\lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$ exists. Then $f'(a)$ also exists, and $$f'(a) = \lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$$
Proof
By definition, $$f'(a) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}$$ For sufficiently small $h>0$ the function $f$ will be continuous on $[a,a+h]$ and differentiable on $(a,a+h)$ (a similar assertion holds for sufficiently small $h<0$). By the Mean Value Theorem there is a number $\alpha_h$ in $(a,a+h)$ such that $$\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h} = f'(\alpha_h)$$ Now $\alpha_h$ approaches $a$ as $h$ approaches $0$, because $\alpha_h$ is in $(a,a+h)$; since $\lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$ exists, it follows that $$f'(a) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} f'(\alpha_h) = \lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$$ (It is a good idea to supply a rigorous $\epsilon$-$\delta$ argument for this final step, which we have treated somewhat informally.) $\blacksquare$
Following the recommendation of supplying the details I had the question of $\alpha_h$ being a choice function. This is because for every $h$ there is the possibility of having a lot of points $c$ such that $f'(c)=\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}$. Then we choose one of them to have a function $\alpha_h$. I'm not sure though because I'm always struggling with the axiom of choice that I cannot distinguish if it's needed or not. Also maybe in this case what the author is saying is something different. Can you guys please help me?