Can somebody please explain me what is a Haar random state? I am not able to find any friendly resource to read about it.
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1Also this link in pennylane provides an intuitive description: https://pennylane.ai/qml/demos/tutorial_haar_measure.html – Farhad Jul 04 '22 at 20:19
2 Answers
Typically this is a slight abuse of notation. One can have a unitary operator $U$ chosen from some Haar measure, such as the circular unitary ensemble. Then, taking some fiducial state $|\psi_0\rangle$, a "Haar-random state" would be $|\psi_U\rangle=U|\psi_0\rangle$ for $U$ randomly chosen according to the Haar measure. If you want to find the average value of some observable $O$ using such a Haar-random state, you'd say $$\bar{ O}=\int dU \langle \psi_U| O|\psi_U\rangle=\int dU \langle \psi_0|U^\dagger OU|\psi_0\rangle,$$ so you can also look at this in a Heisenberg picture in which the operators $O$ get distributed according to the Haar measure through $U^\dagger OU$ and the fiducial state $|\psi_0\rangle$ remains unchanged. In the above I've assumed the measure to be normalized, with $\int dU=1$, which can always be facilitated.
The reason I see the unitaries as more fundamental than the states is that it is the unitaries that form a group (the composition of two unitaries $U_1 U_2$ is a unitary, while the composition of two states $\rho_1 \rho_2$ is not a state). Further, it is the set of unitaries that define the space of states. Take, for example, a single harmonic oscillator, spanned by the Fock states $|n\rangle$. What is a random distribution for these states? Should each coefficient $\psi_m$ in the state $$|\psi\rangle=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \psi_n|n\rangle$$ be distributed in the same way? That would require a Haar measure on the infinte-dimensional unitary group $\lim_{N\to\infty}U(N)$, and I'm not sure whether that exists. Should we take a state with equal probability of being everywhere in phase space; i.e., should it have a uniform quasiprobability distribution? That would make sense in some physical scenarios. These questions can only be answered by specifying a group of unitaries and fiducial state.
For example, one can choose the group of unitaries corresponding to displacements $D(\alpha)=\exp(\alpha a^\dagger-\alpha^* a)$, which comprise the Heisenberg group, and the fiducial state $|0\rangle$. Then the uniform set of states is the set of coherent states $D(\alpha)|0\rangle$. For another fiducial state such as $|1\rangle$, the uniform distribution gives a different set of states $D(\alpha)|1\rangle$, which are also (over)complete in the Fock space, but do not contain any of the states $D(\alpha)|0\rangle$! So specifying the Hilbert space or set of states is not enough to determine a random set of states; it is the unitary group and the fiducial state that matter.
We could even generalize this to Gaussian operations, which comprise the symplectic group, acting on the very same Fock space. Then we get a different Haar measure over this new group, which creates all of the Gaussian states from the fiducial state $|0\rangle$, but creates a whole set of non-Gaussian states from the fiducial state $|1\rangle$! Just telling us the fiducial state is not enough to specify the group, just telling us the fiducial state and its Hilbert space (here the Fock space spanned by $|n\rangle$) is not enough; one must equip the space with a method for travelling around in it, which is provided by the Haar measure for the group of transformations in which one is interested. Why do we have different sets of random states but only one measure? Because the measure comes from the unitary group, while the set of random states comes from a fiducial state and the Haar measure for the chosen unitary group.
As a separate set of examples, we can consider random distributions of $N$ qubits. These can be obtained using the unitary group $U(2^N)$, as the Hilbert space has dimension $2^N$. Alternatively, one can consider only the permutation-symmetric group of unitaries, which act on the $(N+1)$-dimensional subspace of the unsymmetrized Hilbert space. Then a random distribution could invoke the unitary group $U(N+1)$, essentially randomizing the coefficients of the state in some basis of this Hilbert space. But then we can also remember that a symmetric set of $N$ qubits furnishes us with a representation of $SU(2)$, so we can distribute these states randomly using the Haar measure from $SU(2)$. These could all begin with the same fiducial state and yet would give radically different distributions. This is why specifying the group matters.
Incidentally, the $N$ qubit example uses unitary groups throughout, so each set of states can be parametrized by some coordinates on a hypersphere. The harmonic oscillator example is different, as the hypersphere would need to be infinite-dimensional, or else it must be a plane (as in the set of displacements, with a planar phase space) or parametrized by the symplectic group. These should hopefully show how fundamental the unitary groups are to specifying the set of random states one wishes to distribute using a Haar measure.

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I'd say it is a generalization rather than an abuse of terminology. – Norbert Schuch Jan 24 '22 at 14:54
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why is this abuse of notation or necessitates a notion of induced measure? Pure states (projectively speaking) live on the surface of some hypersphere, e.g. for a single-qubit this is the Bloch sphere, so all we have to do is sample from the latter manifold uniformly i.e. from the Haar measure of the hypersphere. This is a well-defined notion without needing to invoke a uniformly-drawn unitary (i.e. drawn from the Haar measure of this different, larger space) acting on a reference state to "project" it down. – nervxxx Jan 24 '22 at 20:09
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@QuantumMechanic I'd say "Haar random state" is completely fine, if you consider "Haar random" to mean "a measure which is invariant under the action of any unitary" - this definition applies equally to "Haar random unitaries" and "Haar random states". – Norbert Schuch Jan 24 '22 at 21:14
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@nervxxx I'd say it's still induced, see eg https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com/a/6221/15820. I also note that the hypersphere is not always the correct manifold: for example, if you take $n$ qubits, you can distribute them with SU$(2)^{\otimes n}$, symmetrically with SU$(2)$, uniformly within the symmetric subspace as SU$(n)$, etc. – Quantum Mechanic Jan 24 '22 at 21:27
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@NorbertSchuch with that definition alone I agree and that's why I call it an abuse of notation (abuse of notation isn't inherently bad). The main point is that you eventually need to specify the group action and that comes from unitaries, not from states – Quantum Mechanic Jan 24 '22 at 21:38
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@QuantumMechanic I see - so you're basically saying that it should correctly read "Haar-random state over the unitary group"? (Note that the same is true for Haar-random unitaries, though of course there one might argue that there is a canonical default.) – Norbert Schuch Jan 24 '22 at 21:54
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@QuantumMechanic BTW, I don't see why it is (necessarily) induced: You don't need to have the Haar measure on the unitaries to have a Haar measure on states. – Norbert Schuch Jan 24 '22 at 21:55
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@QuantumMechanic I didn't understand your comment on the hypersphere not being the correct manifold for $n$ qubits. A quantum state maps to an element of that manifold, no? The examples you give, i.e. "distributing with $SU(2)^{\otimes n}$, symmetrically with $SU(2)$" etc., do not correspond to a uniform measure over the space, which is unique up to rescaling (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_measure) and is the Haar measure in question. Rather, "distributing with $SU(2)^{\otimes n}$" is what I'd call a "Haar random Product state" but this is clearly not a "Haar random state".. – nervxxx Jan 24 '22 at 22:42
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@NorbertSchuch exactly: you need to specify which group of unitaries you're using. I agree that you can choose a Hilbert space and say you're using the unitaries that take you around that space, so there's probably no problem saying the states are random, it's just that I find the unitaries to be more fundamental – Quantum Mechanic Jan 24 '22 at 22:43
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@nervxxx no! The whole point is that there's more than one notion of random state! You have to specify your distribution and it's not ever obvious that one is better than another, unless you have a physical reason. There's a big difference between a random state of $n$ qubits and a random state of $n$ symmetric qubits – Quantum Mechanic Jan 24 '22 at 22:44
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@QuantumMechanic But saying "Haar" already specifies the type of distribution: that it is $uniform$ over the space in question. What you're pointing out is that the space has not been defined (e.g. do we look at the full Hilbert space of $2$ qubits, which is $4$-dimensional? or the symmetric space of 2 qubits, which is spanned by the triplet states, which is $3$-dimensional?). Regardless, in both cases, there $is$ a hypersphere in question (albeit of different sizes), and a Haar random vector would be sampling from the Haar measure on the respective unit hyperspheres. – nervxxx Jan 25 '22 at 00:15
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More generally, for any finite $N$-dimensional space, a Haar random vector is obtained by sampling uniformly from the unit sphere in $\mathbb{C}^N$. Note your example of "distributed with SU(2)^{\otimes n}" for $n$ qubits is what people in my community would call a Haar random product state (yes, it's another valid way of sampling from a $n$-qubit space, no one is denying that! and it's not better or worse, definitely.), the qualifier "product" here is important. – nervxxx Jan 25 '22 at 00:15
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@nervxxx you said it yourself, you have to specify the space in question. And you're allowed infinite dimensional spaces (see edits for copious examples) so you really need to specify your group and fiducial state before talking about $\mathbb{C}^N$ or something. Luckily we both know what each other is talking about whenever we say anything so this is mostly semantics – Quantum Mechanic Jan 25 '22 at 02:39
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@QuantumMechanic thanks for the explanation and update to your post, I see. Maybe I should post this as a separate qn, but I am curious: given a fiducial state on $n$ qubits and a set unitaries defined by time evolution operators $e^{-i H t}$, $t \in \mathbb{R}$ (which form a group) -- can you define a notion of "Haar distributed" set of "time-evolved" states? Is this qn even meaningful? – nervxxx Jan 25 '22 at 04:58
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1@nervxxx the manifold of pure states is the complex projective space $\mathbb CP^{d-1}$, not the complex sphere. You have to identify points on the sphere which differ by a complex phase. $\mathbb CP^{d-1}$ has an induced metric from $\mathbb C^d$ which is the Fubini-Study metric. Using that metric, you can define a measure on $\mathbb CP^{d-1}$ which would be the "uniform measure" on pure states. The reason why it's uniform is that the isometry group of FS is the projective unitary group $PU(d)$. Thus, in the end it's the same as acting with Haar-random unitaries up to a phase. – Markus Heinrich Jan 25 '22 at 12:49
Please read my paper. We have discussed Haar uniformity. It will help. https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1367-2630/ac37c8/meta
Section 2.1 "Haar uniform random states and probability density functions."

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3hello and welcome to the site. Would you mind adding some more details about the relevance of the linked paper to the question at hand? As it stands, this is essentially a link-only answer and might be better suited as a comment rather than as an answer. The relevance of this paper is also not immediately obvious reading the title, so some context might be warranted – glS Jul 03 '22 at 14:41