I'm confused about the last complete sentence in the following paragraphs. If ab=0, that means either a or b equals to 0. As a result, doesn't $|\psi\rangle|\psi\rangle$ equal to either $b^2|11\rangle$ or $a^2|00\rangle$? If so, how is this related to $a|00\rangle + b|11\rangle$? Also, how do $|\psi\rangle|\psi\rangle = b^2|11\rangle$ or $=a^2|00\rangle$ show that the quantum state input is copied?
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6Ideally, when someone else has a question about this statement in future they should be able to find this question. However, this won't work if you use images to represent the text, because images are not searchable. Please do not use them for text or mathematical expressions. For the latter, you can use MathJax. – Adam Zalcman Aug 05 '21 at 02:00
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1Does this answer your question? How is the no-cloning theorem compatible with the fact that fan-out gates work? – Martin Vesely Aug 05 '21 at 04:45
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5I don't want to blame you but asking 7 question within couple of hours, seems you need to prepare your knowledge base. Asking a specific question in the related community is more than welcomed. This looks like you just ask rather making a simple research. It has spam characteristics and lowers the quality because of quantity. – Ole Pannier Aug 05 '21 at 18:26
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Note that if $|\psi \rangle = |0\rangle$ or $|\psi\rangle = |1\rangle$ then
$$CNOT|\psi \rangle|0\rangle = CNOT|0 \rangle|0\rangle = CNOT |0 0\rangle = |00\rangle = |0\rangle_{\textrm{original qubit}}|0\rangle_{\textrm{copied qubit}} $$
and
$$CNOT|\psi \rangle|0\rangle = CNOT|1 \rangle|0\rangle = CNOT|10\rangle = |11\rangle = |1\rangle_{\textrm{original qubit}}|1\rangle_{\textrm{copied qubit}}$$
This says that if the qubit is in a definite state $|0\rangle$ or $|1\rangle$ then we can use the CNOT gate to copy the state of the qubit. This is not very surprising since the qubit in this case behave just like a classical bit...

KAJ226
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Thank you for the reply! I'm just a bit confused. We know that |ψ⟩|ψ⟩ equal to either b^2|11⟩ or a^2|00⟩ and the output from our circuit is either a|00⟩ or b|11⟩ (since either a or b is 0). The amplitudes are apparently different: one is the square of the other. How does this still count as successfully copied the state? – Claire Aug 05 '21 at 15:35
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Note that in this case, either $a= 1$ or $b =1$. This is because the state must be normalized in the first place. Thus, $a^2 = a = 1$ or $b^2 = b = 1$. – KAJ226 Aug 05 '21 at 16:55