Questions tagged [irrationality-measure]

The Liouville-Roth irrationality measure of a real number $x$ is a measure of how "closely" it can be approximated by rationals.

The Liouville-Roth irrationality measure (irrationality exponent, approximation exponent, or Liouville–Roth constant) of a real number $x$ is a measure of how "closely" it can be approximated by rationals. The largest possible value for $\mu$ such that $ 0<\left|x-{\frac {p}{q}}\right|<{\frac {1}{q^{\mu }}} $ is satisfied by an infinite number of integer pairs $(p, q)$ with $q > 0$ is defined to be the irrationality measure of $x$. For any value $\mu$ less than this upper bound, the infinite set of all rationals $\frac p q$ satisfying the above inequality yield an approximation of $x$. Conversely, if $\mu$ is greater than the upper bound, then there are at most finitely many $(p, q)$ with $q > 0$ that satisfy the inequality; thus, the opposite inequality holds for all larger values of $q$. In other words, given the irrationality measure $\mu$ of a real number $x$, whenever a rational approximation $x \approx \frac p q$, $p,q \in \mathbb Z$ and $q>0$, yields $n + 1$ exact decimal digits, we have

$$ \frac {1}{10^{n}}\ge \left|x-\frac {p}{q}\right|\ge \frac {1}{q^{\mu +\epsilon }} $$

for any $\epsilon>0$, except for at most a finite number of "lucky" pairs $(p, q)$.

For a rational number $\alpha$ the irrationality measure is $\mu(\alpha) = 1$. The Thue–Siegel–Roth theorem states that if $\alpha$ is an algebraic number, real but not rational, then $\mu(\alpha) = 2$.

Almost all numbers have an irrationality measure equal to $2$.

Transcendental numbers have irrationality measure $2$ or greater. For example, the transcendental number $e$ has $\mu(e) = 2$. The irrationality measures of $\pi$, $\log 2$, and $\log 3$ are at most $7.103205334137$, $3.57455391$, and $5.125$, respectively.

It has been proven that if the series $ \sum _{n=1}^{\infty }{\frac {\csc ^{2}n}{n^{3}}} $ (where $n$ is in radians) converges, then $ \pi $'s irrationality measure is at most $2.5$.

The Liouville numbers are precisely those numbers having infinite irrationality measure.

Source: Wikipedia

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About irrationality measure.

The irrationality measure of $\alpha\in\mathbb{R}$ is defined by $\displaystyle\mu(\alpha)=\inf\left\{\nu\in\mathbb{R}_+,\; \text{card}\left(\left\{\frac pq\in\mathbb{Q},\; 0<\left|\alpha-\frac pq\right|<\frac…
P.Fazioli
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Can we make the definition of irrationality measure ‘stronger’?

By definition, $$0<\left\lvert \frac{p}{q}-x\right\rvert<\frac1{q^{\mu(x)-\epsilon}}$$ has infinitely many solutions $(p,q)$ for every $\epsilon>0$. However, to prove a theorem in a current project, I would need the following inequality to have…
Szeto
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Silly question about irrationally measure

The irrationality measure can be defined as: Let $x$ be a real number, and let $R$ be the set of positive real numbers $\mu$ for which $$0<|x-\frac{p}q|<\frac1{q^\mu}$$ has (at most) finitely many solutions for $p$ and $q$ integers. Then,…
Szeto
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The irrational of such constant

In this question, I needed to assume in my answer that $e^{e^{e^{79}}}$ is not an integer. Is there some standard result in number theory that applies to situations like this? After several years, it appears this is an open problem. As a non-number…
Toy
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Prove that irrationality measure is never less than 1

Every publication about the irrationality measure $\mu(\alpha)$ mentions as an obvious fact that $\mu(r) = 1$ for a rational $r$. Since I am new to this topic, it didn't look quite obvious to me, so I tried to prove. This is what I've got (please,…
cyanide
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Constructing an isosceles right triangle with $\sqrt{2}$ sides

Can you actually have an isosceles right triangle with $45$ degree angles? Such a triangle has sides of $2$, $\sqrt{2}$, and $\sqrt{2}$. But $\sqrt{2}$ is an irrational number. Can you actually have line segments which are $\sqrt{2}$ in length?
K Mann
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