Let $(\mathcal{X}, \mathcal{A}, \mu)$ be a measure space, $f_n: \mathcal{X} \to \Bbb R$ a sequence of measurable functions, and $g_n:\mathcal{X} \to \Bbb R$ integrable functions such that $|f_n| \leq g_n$. Let $f$ and $g$ measurable functions, $g$ integrable, with $f_n(x) \to f(x)$ and $g_n(x) \to g(x)$. If $\int_{\mathcal{X}} g_n \ \mathrm{d}\mu \to \int_{\mathcal{X}} g \ \mathrm{d}\mu $, then $\int_{\mathcal{X}} f_n \ \mathrm{d}\mu \to \int_{\mathcal{X}} f \ \mathrm{d}\mu $.
I think that the idea is to dominate all those $f_n$ with some integrable function, and then by the Dominated Convergence Theorem, we're done. The problem is that each $f_n$ is dominated by $g_n$, it's not the same function dominating all of them. Ok, I know that: $$f_n \leq |f_n(x)| \leq g_n(x) \implies |f(x)| \leq g(x) \quad \mbox{and}\quad \int_{\mathcal{X}} f_n \ \mathrm{d}\mu \leq \int_{\mathcal{X}} g_n \ \mathrm{d}\mu.$$
Taking limits, we get: $$\limsup \int_{\mathcal{X}} f_n \ \mathrm{d}\mu \leq \int_{\mathcal{X}} g \ \mathrm{d}\mu $$
But other than this, I don't know how to do it. Can someone give me some help (or hints of how to use this info)? Thanks.
And maybe $-f \limsup \int f_n$ is a typo?
– Ivo Terek Oct 23 '14 at 00:31