I am fairly sure, given examples $\Bbb{R}\times \Bbb{R},\Bbb{R}\times \Bbb{Q},\Bbb{Q}\times \Bbb{Q} $, that this is correct, but do not know how to prove it.
In my cited examples the proof has always used some specific property of $A,B$, leaving me clueless as to the general method of solving this. I am especially interested in the case were $|\Bbb{R}|>A>|\Bbb{Q}|,|B|=|\Bbb{Q}|$, though ideally the answer would be more general.
To be explicit, I'm asking for a proof of the statement in the question title, where $A,B$ are sets with infinite cardinalities.