How would you solve the following limit?
$$\lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\left(\left(1-\frac{1}{2^2}\right)\left(1-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)\cdots\left(1-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\right)$$
I think that the limit is $0$, because $\frac{1}{n^2}$, and also as $n$ increases the value of $1-\frac{1}{n^2}$ decreases, so the limit is zero.
But how can I show this mathematically, or is the only way I can show this? Thanks in advance for your reply.