First of it all, sorry about that horrible title, if you know how to refine it please be my guest and do so. This question is of the same caliber as $\hom(V,W)$ is canonic isomorph to $\hom(W^*, V^*)$ that I used to ask a long while ago.
Unfortunately this comes with two things. 1st being that I do understand as good as nothing about this problem, 2nd that I need to write a lot of things down in order to even make this post look like a question, although the most honest kind of question I could ask would be "Whaaaaaa?"
Problem: Let $I \neq \emptyset$ be a set and $(G_i, \circ_i)_{i \in I}$ be a family of groups. Let $G:= \times_{i \in I} G_i$ and consider the mapping $\circ : G \times G \to G$ be defined by $$ (x_i)_{i \in I} \circ (y_i)_{ i \in I} := (x_i \circ_i y_i)_{i \in I} $$ Show that $(G, \circ)$ is a group.
Wow, okay. I'd love to understand this problem, but I don't. Let me show to you however that I've done my homeworks and at least know what is expected of me.
My approach: First I want to introduce all the symbols, starting by the most simple ones
$(x_i)_{i \in I}$ is a family of elements in $M$. This makes more sense to me when I consider $M^I := \text{map}(I,M)$ the mappings from $I \to M$ where $I$ is the set of indices. For $I= \mathbb{N}$ I would get the regular sequences with values in $M(=\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{C}$)
$\times_{i \in I} G_i:= \lbrace x:I \to \bigcup_{i \in I} G_i \mid x_i \in G_i , \forall i \in I\rbrace $ is the direct product of family of sets $(G_i)_{i \in I}$ for $I= \lbrace 1,2 \rbrace$ I get the cartesian product, I don't quite see it to be honest but I can take it as granted.
next for $(G, \circ)$ to be a group I need to verify several things:
First the operation $\circ$ must be associative, that is for three elements $x,y,z \in G$ I must show that $x \circ (y \circ z) = (x \circ y) \circ z$. So the elements in $G$ are families $(x_i)_{i \in I}$ with elements in $M$, so I believe I have to show that $$((x_i)_{i \in I} \circ (y_i)_{i \in I}) \circ (z_i)_{i \in I} :\overset{?}= (((x_i)_{i \in I} \circ (y_i)_{i \in I}) \circ_i z_i)_{i \in I}\overset{?}=(x_i \circ_i y_i \circ_i z_i)_{i \in I} \\ = ???? = (x_i)_{i \in I} \circ ((y_i)_{i \in I} \circ (z_i)_{i \in I}))$$ although I have no idea if I am associating my parenthesis correctly here, the expression is just too complicated for me to handle.
then I need to show that there is an neutral element in $G$, that means that for all $(x_i)_{i \in I}$ there is an element such that $$(x_i)_{I \in I} \circ e = e \circ (x_i)_{i \in I} = (x_i)_{i \in I} $$ since we're talking about family of functions maybe the right guess would be the identity mapping, but I am guessing here.
finally, I need to show that there exists an inverse element for every element of $G$ so that when I compose it with $\circ$ I get the identity again.
Here my journey ends, or begins, there is nothing I can add. I would appreciate some initial kicks that show me how to get going, how to even start formulate a 'proof' or how one can think about all this stuff above. Sorry for the mess.