There is a very simple expression for the inverse of Fourier transform.
What is the easiest known expression for the inverse Laplace transform?
Moreover, what is the easiest way to prove it?
There is a very simple expression for the inverse of Fourier transform.
What is the easiest known expression for the inverse Laplace transform?
Moreover, what is the easiest way to prove it?
The Laplace transform can be simply interpreted as a Wick rotated Fourier transform of a function $f(t)$ which vanishes for $t<0$. Wick rotation means (in this case) changing the frequency $\omega$ of the Fourier transform into an imaginary parameter $s=-i\omega$ of the Laplace transform.
The reason for the inversion $$\mathcal{L}^{-1} \{F(s)\} = f(t) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\lim_{T\to\infty}\int\limits_{\gamma-iT}^{\gamma+iT}e^{st}F(s)\,ds, \qquad s=\Re(\gamma)$$ to be a bit more complicated than the inverse Fourier transform (see wikipedia, to quote @Akhil) is this imaginary frequency which, if left purely imaginary, would lead to a non-convergent integral. The formula is still similar to the inverse Fourier transform. In fact I think (but have not verified) you could use it for that purpose to.