If the set of logical axioms is empty and so is the set of non-logical axioms, then it seems we can't make any deduction.As the first formula in the deduction must belong to either sets or it it's deduced from previous formulas by means of a rule of inference (no such previous formulas even exists!)
In Friendly introduction to logic, it's stated that,
Actually, after we set up our rules of inference, there will be some deductioms from the empty set of axioms, but that comes later.
Is that even possible? my answer is yes since I can think of the possibility when we have a rule of the inference of the form: $(\emptyset,\phi)$ for some tautlology $\phi$. So we can start the deduction using this particular $\phi$, Is that right?
But, If we don't have even any rule of inference at hand, Can we still have some deductions? It seems to be impossible for this to happen, right?