Let $R$ be a commutative domain and suppose that $I \subseteq R$ is an ideal of $R$ maximal with respect to the property that $I^{-1} \not\subseteq R$. Show that $I$ is a prime ideal.
This is deemed a harder homework question by my instructor. Some of my thoughts are as below.
Notationally, if $J$ is an ideal of $R$ and $K$ is the field of fractions for $R$, then $$J^{-1} = \{k \in K \mid kJ \subset R \}$$
Begining of possible proof:
Take $r,s$ in $R$. Suppose that that their product $rs$ is in $I$, but that $r$ is not in $I$. Then we have that the following ideal of $R$ properly contains $I$: $$\langle r \rangle + I$$ where $ \langle r \rangle$ is the ideal generated by $r$ in $R$. We know $$I \subsetneq (\langle r \rangle + I) \subseteq R.$$
Note that clearly $\langle r \rangle^{-1} = \left\{\dfrac{z}{r}\mid z \in R\right\}$.
If $r = 1_R$, then $\langle r \rangle^{-1} = \langle r \rangle = R$. Otherwise, $\langle r \rangle^{-1} \not\subseteq R$. It should be relatively evident that $(\langle r \rangle + I)^{-1} = \langle r \rangle^{-1} \cap I^{-1}$. This can be thought of by considering that the only things that will invert both $\langle r \rangle$ and $I$ will lie in the intersection of the two ideal inverses.
I perhaps want to use this to somehow show that $(\langle r \rangle + I)^{-1} \not\subseteq R$, which by maximality would imply that $(\langle r \rangle + I) = R$. This would allow me to write $(rx) + a = 1$ for $rx \in \langle r \rangle, a \in I$.
Then $s(rx) + sa =(sr)x + sa= s$. We know that $sr \in I$, so $(sr)x \in I$. Also, by absorption, $sa$ is in $I$. So $s$ must be in $I$ and we are done.
The one thing I cannot see how to show is that $(\langle r \rangle + I) = R$. Any thoughts?