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What tools would you recommend me for evaluating this integral?

$$\int_{0}^{\pi/4} \log(\sin(x)) \log(\cos(x)) \log(\cos(2x)) \,dx$$

My first thought was to use the beta function, but it's hard to get such a form because
of $\cos(2x)$. What other options do I have?

user 1591719
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    This is monster. Using substitution $t=\tan x$, it can be expressed as$$-\frac{1}{4}\int_0^1 \ln\left(\frac{t^2}{1+t^2}\right) \ln\left(1+t^2\right) \ln\left(\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}\right)\frac{dt}{1+t^2}$$ – Anastasiya-Romanova 秀 Sep 21 '14 at 11:05
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    @Alizter If $t=\tan\frac{x}{2}$, the upper limit will not equal 1 – Anastasiya-Romanova 秀 Sep 21 '14 at 14:37
  • First, extend the interval to $\bigg(0,~\dfrac\pi2\bigg)$ by rewriting $\ln\cos2x=\ln|\cos2x|=\dfrac{\ln\cos^22x}2$ and using $\displaystyle\int_0^\tfrac\pi4=\int_\tfrac\pi4^\tfrac\pi2=\dfrac12\int_0^\tfrac\pi2~$, then apply a simple trigonometric substitution. – Lucian May 05 '20 at 16:19
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    $$I=-\frac{1}{8}\pi ^2 C+\frac{15 }{64}\pi \zeta (3)-\frac{1}{4} \pi \log ^3(2)+\frac{1}{48} \pi ^3 \log (2)$$ – Infiniticism Aug 23 '20 at 07:22

3 Answers3

5

A decade soon, and still no solution! (let's put an end to this story - very elegantly)

A solution by Cornel Ioan Valean (in large steps)

To begin with, I'll consider the trivial integral result, $$ \int_0^{\pi/4} \sin^2(2 n x) \log (\cos (2 x)) \textrm{d}x=-\log(2)\frac{\pi}{8}-\frac{\pi}{16} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{1}{n},$$ which is straightforward to extract by using the identity $1-\cos(x)=2\sin^2(x/2)$, integrating the trivial resulting part, then integrating by parts the remaining integral and combining it with the use of a simple recurrence relation (also given in the sequel, page $201$).

The key step is represented by the Fourier-like series presented and derived in the book (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series (2019), pages $248$, $$\small \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(2H_{2n}-2H_n+\frac{1}{2n}-2\log(2)\right)\frac{\sin^2(2nx)}{n}=\log(\sin(x))\log(\cos(x)), \ 0< x<\frac{\pi}{2}.$$

Returning to the main integral, we have that $$\int_0^{\pi/4} \log(\sin(x))\log(\cos(x))\log(\cos(2x)) \textrm{d}x$$ $$=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(2H_{2n}-2H_n+\frac{1}{2n}-2\log(2)\right)\frac{1}{n} \int_0^{\pi/4} \sin^2(2nx) \log(\cos(2x)) \textrm{d}x$$ $$=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(2H_{2n}-2H_n+\frac{1}{2n}-2\log(2)\right)\frac{1}{n} \left(\log(2)\frac{\pi}{8}+\frac{\pi}{16} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{1}{n}\right)$$ $$\small =-\frac{3}{128}\pi \zeta(3)-\log(2)\frac{\pi}{4}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}\left(H_{2n}-H_n-\log(2)\right) +\frac{\pi}{8} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{H_n}{n^2}-\frac{\pi}{8} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{H_{2n}}{n^2}$$ $$=\frac{\pi^3}{48}\log(2)-\frac{\pi}{4}\log^3(2)+\frac{15}{64}\pi \zeta(3)-\frac{\pi^2}{8}G,$$ where all the series are known. For example, we have that $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}\left(H_{2n}-H_n-\log(2)\right)=\log^2(2)-\frac{\pi^2}{12}$, which is given and calculated both in (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series (2019), page $250$, and its sequel More (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series (2023), page $767$, then $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{H_n}{n^2}=\frac{5}{8}\zeta(3)$ can be found both in the first mention book, page $310$, but also in the sequel, where you can find solutions by elementary series manipulations, which means you won't need to touch integrals (check pages $414$ and $421$ and the related solution sections). At the same time, you can also exploit generating functions to get the result, again in the sequel (page $399$). Further, using the generating function stated at eq. $(4.36)$ (as previously suggested), with the third closed-form, we get that $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{H_{2n}}{n^2}=-4 \Re \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} i^n \frac{H_n}{n^2}=\pi G-\frac{23}{16}\zeta(3)$, where the resulting dilogarithmic and trilogarithmic values with the needed complex argument can be found in the sequel, the section $6.53$, pages $770$-$779$ and also here. Another thing to emphasize at this point is that we can totally avoid the use of complex numbers for the series $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{H_{2n}}{n^2}$ due to the fact that in (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series (2019), pages $123$-$124$, the related integral, that is, $\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{x \operatorname{Li}_2(x)}{1+x^2}\textrm{d}x$ is calculated by real methods (the calculations can be optimized even more by exploiting results from the sequel).

What's left? (since we are done with the main integral)

Some temptations for adventurous calculations may immediately cross one's mind if we recall the splendid Fourier series,

$$\log(\cos(x))\log^2(\sin(x))$$ $$=\frac{1}{4}\zeta(3)-\log^3(2)+\sum _{n=1}^{\infty } \biggr(\int_0^1 t^{n-1} \biggr(4 \operatorname{arctanh}^2(t)-\log ^2\left(\frac{1-t}{2 \sqrt{t}}\right)$$ $$-\left(1-(-1)^{n-1}\right) \log ^2\left(\frac{1+t}{2 \sqrt{t}}\right)\biggr)\textrm{d}t \biggr)\cos (2 n x), \ 0<x<\frac{\pi}{2};$$ or $$\log(\sin(x))\log^2(\cos(x))$$ $$=\frac{1}{4}\zeta(3)-\log^3(2)-\sum _{n=1}^{\infty }(-1)^{n-1} \biggr(\int_0^1 t^{n-1} \biggr(4 \operatorname{arctanh}^2(t)-\log ^2\left(\frac{1-t}{2 \sqrt{t}}\right)$$ $$-\left(1-(-1)^{n-1}\right) \log ^2\left(\frac{1+t}{2 \sqrt{t}}\right)\biggr)\textrm{d}t \biggr)\cos (2 n x), \ 0<x<\frac{\pi}{2},$$ which are given in More (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series (2023), page $449$.

End of story (by the way, soon more advanced versions of this integral will appear in a paper)

user97357329
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The function $g(x)=\left(1-\left(\frac{4x}{\pi }\right)^4\right)^{\frac{1}{4}}-1$ is a good approximation of the integrand. And its integral between $[0,\frac{\pi}{4}]$ is equal to $\frac{1}{8}(\sqrt{\pi}\Gamma(\frac{1}{4})\Gamma(\frac{5}{4})-2\pi)$ which approximatly equals to $-0.0573047$.

Tak
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Mathematica cannot find an expression of this integral in terms of elementary functions. However, it can be integrated numerically, like this

 NIntegrate[Log[Sin[x]] Log[Cos[x]] Log[Cos[2 x]], {x, 0, Pi/4}]

to yield the result

 -0.05874864

Edit: I'm told an analytic expression might still exist, even though it cannot be found with Mathematica. Regardless, the numeric value is the one above.

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    I would be very grateful if whoever downvoted my answer would explain why they did that. I think that my answer is useful, since I'm saying that there is no way the integral can be computed analitically, but I'm still providing a numeric answer.

    If people would tell me why they disagree then I might improve this answer and my future ones.

    Thanks!

    – Ferdinando Randisi Dec 11 '14 at 15:26
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    I believe that the reason your answer was downvoted is because this site, as well as others, is/are full of extremely difficult integrals, which no CAS can evaluate directly, but which, nevertheless, do possess a closed form expression, even if that expression might sometimes involve certain well-known special functions. – Lucian Dec 11 '14 at 17:31
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    Thank you for your opinion Lucian. I was not aware of that, but it is anticipating for something like that that I wrote "Mathematica cannot find an expression", rather than writing "No expression exists because Mathematica said so". I forgot about this in my previous comment and wrote the second expression instead, but that happened after the downvote. If that was the reason it was downvoted, then I guess can make my answer more clear. Cheers! – Ferdinando Randisi Dec 11 '14 at 21:54
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    This numerical value is useful as a comment, not as an answer. – user111187 Dec 11 '14 at 22:20
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    Thanks user111187. I disagree: the question is a request of "a tool recommended to evaluate the integral". While the user is saying that a particular analytical tool he tried does not work, there is no mention of the fact that such a tool cannot be numerical. I suggested a tool and showed how to use it to provide the value, which is precisely what the user asked. – Ferdinando Randisi Dec 11 '14 at 22:39
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    Let me be honest to you, I was the one who downvoted your answer. The reason is your answer is more suitable as a comment than an answer. I'd vote your answer if you provided a closed-form that could be expressed in elementary/ special functions, but not a numerical result. – Venus Dec 12 '14 at 10:18
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    Thank you Venus and Integrator. I see your point of view, but I disagree. OP made no mention of needing an analytic result; in science, ugly integral forms appear all the time, and often people just need to get a number out of them to plug in some equation (e.g. this was me last week), and as far as we know this could be OP's case. Again, OP asked for something and I gave it to him. In the nicest way possible, I don't believe speculations on what OP meant are a good reason for downvoting an otherwise very on topic answer:-) I do respect your opinion though, and thank you again for telling me. – Ferdinando Randisi Dec 13 '14 at 11:52